What do you think the number of the beast means?

  • man-made Torah

    Votes: 2 11.1%
  • man-made Christ

    Votes: 3 16.7%
  • both of the above

    Votes: 1 5.6%
  • Nero or Neron

    Votes: 4 22.2%
  • other

    Votes: 12 66.7%
  • all of the above

    Votes: 1 5.6%

  • Total voters
    18

Kevin Snow

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Everyone there can be only one number. Either it was a copyist error in writing the 616 or it was a copyist error in writing the 666. Irenaeus of Lyons is the earliest known writer who literally came write after the last apostles and declared that the 616 is the copyist error.

Why do you want to make it more difficult for yourselves? You already can't calculate one number, making it either/or creates an impossibility at understanding the one number since you are clouded with 2.

There can only be one number so which is the right one? If you can't even understand which is the right number, how is it possible for you to give its meaning?
 
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1 John 4:1

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I lean towards the idea that 616 are man made Torah laws that the antichrist and his false prophet will implement as part of temple worship

My guess is the number of the beast is the 613 mitzvah plus 3 new ones

One new commandment is fortold in revelation which is to worship the image of the beast ...which is probably a golem created in his image and placed in the holy of holies....

Not sure what the other 2 may be...

I like that idea by the way. Just wanted to ask then is there a reason we should count/calculate the number? (which maybe means to ascertain it's meaning) Like is it important to know what those laws are in the future so we can prepare for them or does calculating the number just tell you that there are 3 extra laws?
 
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1 John 4:1

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I just added this to my sources. This is interesting, even the Catholics see this as Jewish apocalyptic literature:
"We cannot conclude without mentioning the theory advanced by the German scholar Vischer. He holds the Apocalypse to have been originally a purely Jewish composition, and to have been changed into a Christian work by the insertion of those sections that deal with Christian subjects. From a doctrinal point of view, we think, it cannot be objected to. There are other instances where inspired writers have availed themselves of non-canonical literature. Intrinsically considered it is not improbable. The Apocalypse abounds in passages which bear no specific Christian character but, on the contrary, show a decidedly Jewish complexion. Yet on the whole the theory is but a conjecture. (See also APOCRYPHA)"
CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA: Apocalypse
 
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dfw69

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I like that idea by the way. Just wanted to ask then is there a reason we should count/calculate the number? (which maybe means to ascertain it's meaning) Like is it important to know what those laws are in the future so we can prepare for them or does calculating the number just tell you that there are 3 extra laws?

I think its basic ...maybe because I'm basic in my thinking :)

But that when a man comes claiming to be God and adds 3 laws to the mitzvah then we should beware him....

But i have a question for you ..

What does Heylel say to you ?

What does the letters describe and tell? H Y l l ?

I believe he is the anti Christ

What if the accronynm was
Hey
Ya
L
El ?
 
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1 John 4:1

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I think its basic ...maybe because I'm basic in my thinking :)

But that when a man comes claiming to be God and adds 3 laws to the mitzvah then we should beware him....

But i have a question for you ..

What does Heylel say to you ?

What does the letters describe and tell? H Y l l ?

I believe he is the anti Christ

What if the accronynm was
Hey
Ya
L
El ?
Not sure what you are asking. Are you trying to find an acronym in english for a hebrew word? All that I see it means is "bright star" and is the name used for Lucifer (who is probably Satan)
Genesis 1:1 (KJV)
 
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Kevin Snow

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I like that idea by the way. Just wanted to ask then is there a reason we should count/calculate the number? (which maybe means to ascertain it's meaning) Like is it important to know what those laws are in the future so we can prepare for them or does calculating the number just tell you that there are 3 extra laws?

I think its basic ...maybe because I'm basic in my thinking :)

But that when a man comes claiming to be God and adds 3 laws to the mitzvah then we should beware him....

But i have a question for you ..

What does Heylel say to you ?

What does the letters describe and tell? H Y l l ?

I believe he is the anti Christ

What if the accronynm was
Hey
Ya
L
El ?

So consider this:

Were I to write for him my laws by the ten thousands, they would be regarded as a strange thing. ~Hosea 8:12

He shall speak words against the Most High, and shall wear out the saints of the Most High, and shall think to change the times and the law; and they shall be given into his hand for a time, times, and half a time. ~Daniel 7:25

So what we can understand from this is that there is no limit to God's commandments but that this man will change both the times and the law. Which means that in regard to the things already spoken and already commanded by God, those will be the things that he attacks. There will be a good working order established, following the precepts of God and this man will want to stop that from happening. Adding to the mitvah is therefore not enough to fulfill the agenda of the antichrist.
 
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dfw69

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Not sure what you are asking. Are you trying to find an acronym in english for a hebrew word? All that I see it means is "bright star" and is the name used for Lucifer (who is probably Satan)
Genesis 1:1 (KJV)
Lucifer is a poor translation of the Greek word phosphorus which was a poor translation of the Hebrew word Heylel describing the future king of Babylon ....I think that translation of Lucifer (light bearer) was purposely place to incriminate Jesus.. the light of the world ...

Heylel is a descriptive word meaning the howler or the wailer ...I think its a picture of a wolf or dog which in prophetic language means a false prophet ....

I believe its describing the anti Christ....not Satan .

My question to you was what does hey yod lamed lamed say to you?

and also what if the vowels with the consonants were Ha ya lamed el?

You had mention earlier about tav resh yod vav ...meaning something...

I think it means " behold yah who is not elohim" .....which would prove my theory ....your thoughts?
 
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dfw69

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So consider this:

Were I to write for him my laws by the ten thousands, they would be regarded as a strange thing. ~Hosea 8:12

He shall speak words against the Most High, and shall wear out the saints of the Most High, and shall think to change the times and the law; and they shall be given into his hand for a time, times, and half a time. ~Daniel 7:25

So what we can understand from this is that there is no limit to God's commandments but that this man will change both the times and the law. Which means that in regard to the things already spoken and already commanded by God, those will be the things that he attacks. There will be a good working order established, following the precepts of God and this man will want to stop that from happening. Adding to the mitvah is therefore not enough to fulfill the agenda of the antichrist.

But adding to it will most likely be a part of his identity...as well as attacking other aspects such as the times and seasons which is a part of the law
 
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Douggg

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CONTINUED . . .
17 And that no man might buy or sell, save he that had the mark, or the name of the beast, or the number of his name.

If it was Nero, and Christians were using 666 as a code for Nero to refer to him in a inconspicuous manner - then why does the beast and false prophet themselves require the number 666 as one of the three identifiers a person must have to buy or sell ?

So it is not Nero.

To the beast and false prophet, the number of the beast's name must be important - for them to require it. Part of the mystery is why?
 
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1 John 4:1

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Lucifer is a poor translation of the Greek word phosphorus which was a poor translation of the Hebrew word Heylel describing the future king of Babylon ....I think that translation of Lucifer (light bearer) was purposely place to incriminate Jesus.. the light of the world ...

Heylel is a descriptive word meaning the howler or the wailer ...I think its a picture of a wolf or dog which in prophetic language means a false prophet ....

I believe its describing the anti Christ....not Satan .

My question to you was what does hey yod lamed lamed say to you?

and also what if the vowels with the consonants were Ha ya lamed el?

You had mention earlier about tav resh yod vav ...meaning something...

I think it means " behold yah who is not elohim" .....which would prove my theory ....your thoughts?
Oh I see what you are saying, sorry for the misunderstanding. In the chart I was using only the letters not the vowels have meanings. http://www.jensenpetersen.org/images/Ancient_Hebrew_Alphabet_Chart.pdf I'm not aware of meanings for the vowels. The word heylel just has the consonants "hey lamed lamed" which could have several meanings according to the chart. The pictures in paleo would be "man staff staff" and one meaning you could get is "behold control control" another would be "breath lead lead" maybe you could even say "man control control." They have fewer meanings here: The Letter Hey
The Letter Lamed
Maybe you could say it means "behold goad goad"
 
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why does the beast and false prophet themselves require the number 666 as one of the three identifiers a person must have to buy or sell ?
I think it's because it refers to the false law that Nero was God and should be worshiped which was put on the money. So essentially something like this:

"AD 66 - This was an attempt to bring idolatrous coinage into the temple. Ken Gentry (The Beast of Revelation, p. 64) explains the deification of Nero and his appearance on the Roman coinage at this time: "That Nero actually was worshipped is evident from inscriptions found in Ephesus in which he is called "Almighty God" and "Saviour." ... As his megalomania increased, the tendency to worship him as ruler of the world became stronger, and in Rome his features appeared on the colossus of the Sun near the Golden House, while his head was represented on the coinage with a radiate crown... Nero deified his child by Poppaea, and Poppaea herself after their deaths.
. . .
""And what kind of coin are we to suppose that the Jews of Jerusalem threw into baskets, taunting Florus to take them instead of Temple treasure? The ubiquitous, but idolatrous, coins of the Empire, of course! The message was clear: you want money, take it in your own abundant coin, not the scarce image-free coin that is acceptable for Temple donation. One could hardly have been procurator of Judea and failed either to get the point, or to understand the underlying religious issue; indeed, it could hardly have been mistaken even in Rome, where Jews, by AD 66, were a far-from-unfamiliar governance problem. Florus’ action can only be construed 6 as Josephus construes it: as a deliberate religious provocation, intended to force the Temple to accept the image of the Emperor, represented as a god, onto its premises as part of its ritual. By ceasing to strike Torah-compliant coins after 62 CE, Roman authorities in Judea had been systematically pursuing this policy even before Florus attempted to seize the Temple’s small remaining stock of Torah-compliant coin in AD 66. Where Caligula’s statue had been too large to enter, might not Nero’s small coins infiltrate?"
http://lastdayspast.com/wp-content/...tion-of-Desolation-Lawlessness-Ed-Stevens.pdf
 
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Douggg

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I think it's because it refers to the false law that Nero was God and should be worshiped which was put on the money. So essentially something like this:

"AD 66 - This was an attempt to bring idolatrous coinage into the temple. Ken Gentry (The Beast of Revelation, p. 64) explains the deification of Nero and his appearance on the Roman coinage at this time: "That Nero actually was worshipped is evident from inscriptions found in Ephesus in which he is called "Almighty God" and "Saviour." ... As his megalomania increased, the tendency to worship him as ruler of the world became stronger, and in Rome his features appeared on the colossus of the Sun near the Golden House, while his head was represented on the coinage with a radiate crown... Nero deified his child by Poppaea, and Poppaea herself after their deaths.
. . .
""And what kind of coin are we to suppose that the Jews of Jerusalem threw into baskets, taunting Florus to take them instead of Temple treasure? The ubiquitous, but idolatrous, coins of the Empire, of course! The message was clear: you want money, take it in your own abundant coin, not the scarce image-free coin that is acceptable for Temple donation. One could hardly have been procurator of Judea and failed either to get the point, or to understand the underlying religious issue; indeed, it could hardly have been mistaken even in Rome, where Jews, by AD 66, were a far-from-unfamiliar governance problem. Florus’ action can only be construed 6 as Josephus construes it: as a deliberate religious provocation, intended to force the Temple to accept the image of the Emperor, represented as a god, onto its premises as part of its ritual. By ceasing to strike Torah-compliant coins after 62 CE, Roman authorities in Judea had been systematically pursuing this policy even before Florus attempted to seize the Temple’s small remaining stock of Torah-compliant coin in AD 66. Where Caligula’s statue had been too large to enter, might not Nero’s small coins infiltrate?"
http://lastdayspast.com/wp-content/...tion-of-Desolation-Lawlessness-Ed-Stevens.pdf
It is not Nero because the beast is end times. The beast, the false prophet, and the dragon convince the kings of the earth to gather their armies to make war on Jesus.

Nero was the sixth king ruling as the time. So he was not the person already in the bottomless pit either, as a disembodied spirit, at the time of John, in Revelation 17:8.

The five previous kings were Julius Caesar, Augustus, Tiberius, Caligula, Claudius. Julius Caesar was not a emperor, but the bible does not say emperor but king - leader. They were all of one family, Julio-Claudians. Nero was the last of the historic Julio-Claudians.

The little horn of the end times will be the seventh. And will be the leader of the EU. Then becomes the King of Israel for a short time, the Jews thinking he is their messiah, until he claims to have achieved God-hood. Is killed for the act, and brought back to life as the beast.

Nero cannot fit being the beast - because before becoming the beast, the person must go through a stage of being the (illegitimate) King of Israel - the Antichrist - which to qualify, the person must also be a Jew. His mother must be a Jew.

The person actually is on two tracks - (1) being the King of the fourth empire in the end times; that is the little horn, then the beast (2) being the King of Israel (illegitimate King of Israel, someone who is not who God sent to be their king - the Antichrist - for about 3 years 3 months.
 
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dfw69

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Oh I see what you are saying, sorry for the misunderstanding. In the chart I was using only the letters not the vowels have meanings. http://www.jensenpetersen.org/images/Ancient_Hebrew_Alphabet_Chart.pdf I'm not aware of meanings for the vowels. The word heylel just has the consonants "hey lamed lamed" which could have several meanings according to the chart. The pictures in paleo would be "man staff staff" and one meaning you could get is "behold control control" another would be "breath lead lead" maybe you could even say "man control control." They have fewer meanings here: The Letter Hey
The Letter Lamed
Maybe you could say it means "behold goad goad"

I see....Thank you for your reply ...
 
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Ken Rank

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Thanks for your thoughts. What about the idea that Domitian was the resurrected Nero (in the form that he behaved the same way and that there were pagan authors that referred to him as such) (see the catholic encyclopedia article)

So I'm not a preterist (since I believe these things are still being fulfilled) but I was curious what you thought of these arguments that they were also fulfilled at that time. I suspect "dual fulfillment" is the correct way to interpret at least some prophecy, see this answer: What are the major variations of the "double-fulfillment" hermeneutic? also this: Dual fulfillment - Wikipedia


  • Titus was worshipped in the Temple in A.D. 70 as was customary of someone declared imperator in fulfillment of 2 Thessalonians 2:4: “He sets Himself up in God’s Temple proclaiming Himself to be God.” Josephus records this event: “And now the Romans . . . brought their ensigns to the temple and set them over against its eastern gate; and there did they offer sacrifices to them, and there did they make Titus imperator.”2 A metallic image of Vespasian and Titus was also worshipped at that time. The image of Vespasian and Titus was found on the ensign called the numina legionum which was a large coin-shaped bust or image of the emperor and his favorites (i.e. Titus) held aloft on a pole in explicit fulfillment of Revelation 13:14: “He ordered them to set up an image in honor of the beast who was wounded by the sword and yet lived.” And since Titus was also granted the title Caesar at Vespasian’s coronation, Titus could also be said to be a living, breathing image of his father just as man is the image of God (Genesis 1:26) and Jesus is the image of the Father (Colossians 1:15). Titus is also the “mouth” of Vespasian just as Aaron was the mouth of Moses (Exodus 4:16). Thus when Titus was worshiped beside the images of himself and Vespasian on the numina legionum (meaning “gods of the legions”), Vespasian, Titus’ father and emperor, could also have been said to have been worshiped through Titus who was the mouth and image of his father.
2 Thessalonians 2:1-9: A Preterist Commentary-The Man of Lawlessness Revealed! - Revelation Revolution

"When Vespasian acquired the title Caesar, both of his sons, Titus and Domitian, also inherited the title concurrently (three-in-one trinity?). And just as Jesus is the firstborn Son of God, Titus was likewise the firstborn son of Vespasian. Thus I believe that Caesar Titus, the firstborn son of Caesar Vespasian is the image of the beast, Rome and his father, in the same way that Jesus, the firstborn Son of God, is the image of His Heavenly Father (Colossians 1:15). The idea that Caesar Titus is the image of the beast, the emperor Vespasian and his kingdom, is also implied by the fact that Titus and his father, the emperor, shared the same blended nickname or cognomen, Titus Flavius Vespasianus."
2 Thessalonians 2:1-9: A Preterist Commentary-The Man of Lawlessness Revealed! - Revelation Revolution
I like the idea of dual-fulfillment here, but the problem is, I don't think we can know for sure. It fits, it sounds right... probably would preach well in a church filled with eschatologists ( :) ) but not sure anyone can know for 100% certainty on this one. It reminds me of the time from Kristallnacht until the end of WW2. 7 years, obvious tribulation... more on Judah but can this be a partial fulfillment of Jacob's Trouble? It sure fits... but again, not sure we can prove it.
 
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Kevin Snow

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I like the idea of dual-fulfillment here, but the problem is, I don't think we can know for sure. It fits, it sounds right... probably would preach well in a church filled with eschatologists ( :) ) but not sure anyone can know for 100% certainty on this one. It reminds me of the time from Kristallnacht until the end of WW2. 7 years, obvious tribulation... more on Judah but can this be a partial fulfillment of Jacob's Trouble? It sure fits... but again, not sure we can prove it.

Everyone dual fulfillment is not scriptural. Why not just make it triple fulfillment? Quadruple fulfillment? Do you understand that the scripture is speaking of only one thing that fulfills it? So there can only be one thing that fulfills the scripture.

You can NOT have dual fulfillment. The whole thing is about man's understanding and not God's. God knows what the one thing is that fulfills his word and he is watching over his word to perform it. What you guys are doing is thinking like mere men and this is NOT how you approach the scriptures.
 
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Next, you're ideas and mode of understanding scripture is unsubstantiated in scripture. Dual fulfillment is not in scripture.

Acts 2:16 But this is what was spoken by the prophet Joel:
Acts 2:17 'And it shall come to pass in the last days, says God, That I will pour out of My Spirit on all flesh; Your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, Your young men shall see visions, Your old men shall dream dreams.
Acts 2:18 And on My menservants and on My maidservants I will pour out My Spirit in those days; And they shall prophesy.
Acts 2:19 I will show wonders in heaven above And signs in the earth beneath: Blood and fire and vapor of smoke.
Acts 2:20 The sun shall be turned into darkness, And the moon into blood, Before the coming of the great and awesome day of the Lord.

Did all that Peter quote happen at that time? No... therefore we have dual or partial fulfillment going on here and in other places.
 
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Kevin Snow

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Acts 2:16 But this is what was spoken by the prophet Joel:
Acts 2:17 'And it shall come to pass in the last days, says God, That I will pour out of My Spirit on all flesh; Your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, Your young men shall see visions, Your old men shall dream dreams.
Acts 2:18 And on My menservants and on My maidservants I will pour out My Spirit in those days; And they shall prophesy.
Acts 2:19 I will show wonders in heaven above And signs in the earth beneath: Blood and fire and vapor of smoke.
Acts 2:20 The sun shall be turned into darkness, And the moon into blood, Before the coming of the great and awesome day of the Lord.

Did all that Peter quote happen at that time? No... therefore we have dual or partial fulfillment going on here and in other places.
So what was the purpose of this passage that Peter quoted to the people? It was to show them what was coming. He was NOT saying that what they were doing was fulfilling that scripture but he was saying what they were doing was leading into this word. There still stands the day when this scripture will be fulfilled but as Paul spoke of here:

For if there was glory in the ministry of condemnation, the ministry of righteousness must far exceed it in glory. ~2 Corinthians 3:9

And that glory had not been seen yet but he was speaking of the future glory that this ministry will receive. Both of these people, Paul and Peter were speaking of the time to come and so there was NO partial fulfillment.
 
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So what was the purpose of this passage that Peter quoted to the people? It was to show them what was coming. He was NOT saying that what they were doing was fulfilling that scripture but he was saying what they were doing was leading into this word. There still stands the day when this scripture will be fulfilled but as Paul spoke of here:

For if there was glory in the ministry of condemnation, the ministry of righteousness must far exceed it in glory. ~2 Corinthians 3:9

And that glory had not been seen yet but he was speaking of the future glory that this ministry will receive. Both of these people, Paul and Peter were speaking of the time to come and so there was NO partial fulfillment.
Kevin, respectfully, you are welcome to believe whatever you want. :) But regarding Acts 2... a miracle takes place, the disciples speaking in other languages and people from many nations hearing in their own tongue. What is happening??? Are these men drunk??? No, says Peter... this is what Joel wrote about... and then he quotes the Joel passage. The only problem is, only some of those passages apply to what is happening then, and other parts of it apply to a future time yet he quoted it ALL to the people as an explanation of what they were seeing AT THAT TIME.

There are other examples... many understand the following prophecy in terms of a double-fulfillment:

"Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a son, and she will call His name Immanuel." Isaiah 7:14

Many see "the first fulfillment" in the birth of Maher-shalal-hash-baz (Isaiah 8:3-4) and "the second fulfillment" in the birth of the Messiah (e.g. Matthew 1:23). What about Daniel 9:27... is that speaking about Antiochus AND the end time anti-messiah? I would think so. A prophet would be run out of the camp if his prophecies didn't have fulfillment in his lifetime.

Again, though... I don't care to argue. You're welcome to believe whatever you want. Be blessed.
 
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A prophet would be run out of the camp if his prophecies didn't have fulfillment in his lifetime.

These all died in faith, not having received the things promised, but having seen them and greeted them from afar, and having acknowledged that they were strangers and exiles on the earth.
~Hebrews 11:13

Many prophecies they did not see their fulfillment in their time. And so all those passages have their fulfillment in the end times and only once do they get fulfilled. You can't break the continuity of scripture for the sake of your own sanity or patience. The scriptures have their specific time of fulfillment because they were spoken for a reason. The one reason they were spoken for is the one time they are fulfilled.

Through this "dual fulfillment" theory you are going beyond what is written by applying it to EVERY prophecy and finding fulfillment in this part or in that part with whatever you claim to fulfill it or match it's description. But when the actual fulfillment comes, you won't be ready because you trusted in your own understanding.

This practice is not how scripture is to be understood.

If you are not firm in faith, then you will not be firm at all. ~Isaiah 7:9
 
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It is not Nero because the beast is end times. The beast, the false prophet, and the dragon convince the kings of the earth to gather their armies to make war on Jesus.

Nero was the sixth king ruling as the time. So he was not the person already in the bottomless pit either, as a disembodied spirit, at the time of John, in Revelation 17:8.

The five previous kings were Julius Caesar, Augustus, Tiberius, Caligula, Claudius. Julius Caesar was not a emperor, but the bible does not say emperor but king - leader. They were all of one family, Julio-Claudians. Nero was the last of the historic Julio-Claudians.

The little horn of the end times will be the seventh. And will be the leader of the EU. Then becomes the King of Israel for a short time, the Jews thinking he is their messiah, until he claims to have achieved God-hood. Is killed for the act, and brought back to life as the beast.

Nero cannot fit being the beast - because before becoming the beast, the person must go through a stage of being the (illegitimate) King of Israel - the Antichrist - which to qualify, the person must also be a Jew. His mother must be a Jew.

The person actually is on two tracks - (1) being the King of the fourth empire in the end times; that is the little horn, then the beast (2) being the King of Israel (illegitimate King of Israel, someone who is not who God sent to be their king - the Antichrist - for about 3 years 3 months.

You might have a point. I'm too busy right now to investigate everything here. I do think abyss could mean "non-existence" the way it is used in genesis 12 - Search the Apostolic Bible Polyglot also it seems that it is used for the sea as well. The harlot of babylon who sits on many waters probably signifies a world-system that is composed of many peoples: Revelation 17:15

"Hear ye this, O house of Jacob, Who are called by the name of Israel, And from the waters of Judah came out, Who are swearing by the name of Jehovah, And of the God of Israel make mention, Not in truth nor in righteousness." (isaiah 48:1 YLT) "From the waters of Judah" means "descended" from Judah. So it might mean 1 Nero (figuratively) came back from among peoples. 2 Nero was not in existence but came back. (figuratively) In regards to convincing the world to fight the saints there's the fact that Nero did convince the Roman empire to kill Christians (and attack Jerusalem) and it is referred to as the "whole world" in the NT (they used hyperbole and didn't care about being super specific back then it seems)
"And it came to pass in those days, there went forth a decree from Caesar Augustus, that all the world be enrolled --"(Luke 2:1 YLT)

"Emperor Nero then sent Vespasian, a decorated general, to quell the Judean rebellion. Vespasian put down the opposition in Galilee, then in Transjordan, then in Idumea. He circled in on Jerusalem. But before the coup de grace, Nero died. Vespasian became embroiled in a leadership struggle that concluded with the eastern armies calling for him to be emperor. One of his first imperial acts was to appoint his son Titus to conduct the Jewish War."
A.D. 70 Titus Destroys Jerusalem

I think you are also confusing Nero with Domitian a bit. Here's the original theory (I think they also argue for a non-standard date of Revelation elsewhere in here to maybe explain the other disagreement you have) Their theory looks interesting I don't know enough to say I really believe this (I didn't vote for it in the poll either) Thanks for your thoughts. This might explain some things:

"The year of Nero's death is A.D. 68. The Seer goes on to say "One is", namely Vespasian, A.D. 70-79. He is the sixth emperor. The seventh, we are told by the Seer, "is not yet come. But when he comes his reign will be short". Titus is meant, who reigned but two years (79-81). The eighth emperor is Domitian (81-96). Of him the Seer has something very peculiar to say. He is identified with the beast. He is described as the one that "was and is not and shall come up out of the bottomless pit" (17:8). In verse 11 it is added: "And the beast which was and is not: the same also is the eighth, and is of the seven, and goeth into destruction".

"All this sounds like oracular language. But the clue to its solution is furnished by a popular belief largely spread at the time. The death of Nero had been witnessed by few. Chiefly in the East a notion had taken hold of the mind of the people that Nero was still alive. Gentiles, Jews, and Christians were under the illusion that he was hiding himself, and as was commonly thought, he had gone over to the Parthians, the most troublesome foes of the empire. From there they expected him to return at the head of a mighty army to avenge himself on his enemies. The existence of this fanciful belief is a well-attested historic fact. Tacitus speaks of it: "Achaia atque Asia falso exterrit velut Nero adventaret, vario super ejus exitu rumore eoque pluribus vivere eum fingentibus credentibusque" (Hist., II, 8). So also Dio Chrysostomus: kai nyn (about A.D. 100) eti pantes epithymousi zen oi de pleistoi kai oiontai (Orat., 21, 10; cf. Suetonius, "Vit. Caes."; s.v. NERO and the SIBYLINE ORACLES). Thus the contemporaries of the Seer believed Nero to be alive and expected his return. The Seer either shared their belief or utilized it for his own purpose.

"Nero had made a name for himself by his cruelty and licentiousness. The Christians in particular had reason to dread him. Under him the first persecutiontook place. The second occurred under Domitian. But unlike the previous one, it was not confined to Italy, but spread throughout the provinces. Many Christians were put to death, many were banished (Eusebius, Church History III.17-19). In this way the Seer was led to regard Domitian as a second Nero, "Nero redivivus". Hence he described him as "the one that was, that is not, and that is to return". Hence also he counts him as the eighth and at the same time makes him one of the preceding seven, viz. the fifth, Nero. The identification of the two emperors suggested itself all the more readily since even pagan authors called Domitian a second Nero (calvus Nero, Juvenal. IV, 38). The popular belief concerning Nero's death and return seems to be referred to also in the passage (13:3): "And I saw one of its heads as it were slain to death: and its death's wound was healed"."
CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA: Apocalypse
 
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