Deadworm
Well-Known Member
What it doesn't mean is God had sex with Mary who gave birth to a demi-god like person. So what is the relationship that is being expressed in this epithet that is unique to Jesus without being heretical?
Your question, if persued, will lead you to one of the great dividing lines between churchy understanding of messianic titles and seminary scholarly understandings (both conservative and liberal). In the Palestine of Jesus' day, "son of man" is actually a higher messianic title than "Son of God." "Son of God" refers to a merely human Messianic figure descended from David, as referred to in 2 Samuel 7:14. "Son of Man" can have 3 meanings in our Gospels, depending on the context: it can simply mean "man" or it can mean "I" in Aramaic idiom. As a title it refers to a preexistent heavenly Judge based on Daniel 7:13-14. To determine when it is used as a messianic title, ask yourself if it is being applied to Jesus' role as Judge or whether symbolic clouds are mentioned in the saying (an echo of Daniel 7:13-14. In Hellenistic regions, the 2 terms mean what most modern Christians wrongly assume it always means: "Son of God" meaning "a divine being" and "son of man" meaning a human. Very thick academic books are written to clarify the nuances of these 2 titles.
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