Misquoting of Romans 11:26 - The Deception of the Dispensationalism

TribulationSigns

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The Typical "misquoting" of scripture by Dispensationalists that we hear and read in their articles again and again. So let's take some time to actually consider it. As the word then is not anywhere there in that context of Romans 11. The question then becomes, why do you keep replacing the word that actually is there?

Romans 11:26
  • "And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:"
This blindness in part, or harness of Israel's heart will continue throughout the New Covenant period until the fullness of the Gentiles are come in. And we read here, "..and so, which is a Greek word meaning "in this way," all Israel shall be saved as it is written," by the Deliverer out of Zion that shall turn away ungodliness from them.

Dispensationalists and some others attempt to wrest or rewrite verse 26 to force it to read, "after all the Gentiles come in, "Then" all the nation of Israel is going to be Saved." But even on the face of it, that makes absolutely no sense. All Israel will never be saved, and that 'all' cannot mean the literal nation, as some have alleged. That is totally against everything scripture declares. There is only going to be a remnant of Jacob saved, as has already been stated by the Apostle Paul in the scriptures. It doesn't say most of Israel, it doesn't say the majority of Israel, it says "So all Israel shall be saved."

The second point is that some theologians who realize that it certainly cannot really mean all and refer literally to the nation Israel, hedge and claim that it doesn't really literally mean "all Israel shall be Saved." And these are inevitably those who insist that they take the scriptures very literally. They interpret this to only mean that most of the nation Israel shall be saved. Curiously, they want this literally to refer to the nation Israel, but they don't want it literally mean all Israel. Moreover, this only drives them deeper into confusion and rationalization, because it clearly says when the fullness of the Gentiles have come in, so all Israel shall be saved. If that all means just a remnant, then what is the need for this future salvation program for Israel? Because Paul has stated earlier in this chapter that a remnant of Jews are even now coming in. And if the 'all' here does not mean a remnant, but the whole nation, then it is a deviation from the immutability of God in what He has said, and what has always been. It's an aberration, since the whole nation of Israel has never been saved. The scriptures are not subject to arbitrary or capricious private interpretations. While it is very true that the word "all" is often qualified in scripture to mean "many," there is nothing in the context of this chapter or verse to validate the view that it refers to most of the physical nation of Israel. For Gentiles are not grafted into a physical or literal middle eastern nation of Israel. They are grafted into the Covenant with Israel and remain in their own nations.

Back to my original point, though many Theologians often take license to declare that it says "and then" all Israel "will" be saved, it doesn't really say that at all. Speaking of Israel it says part of it is blinded until the fullness of Gentiles come in (to Israel), and so all Israel shall be saved. This is another very important distinction that is often merely glossed over by those who do not want to accept what is written here. In other words, the context of these scriptures show it is saying that this is how all Israel shall be saved. It will be by some Jewish branches being broken off, and some Gentile not nations branches being grafted in. And when the fullness of these Gentiles are come in, "so" all Israel shall be saved. How? As it is written, by the deliverer out of zion ... So the "all Israel" is all of these who finally end up in this Covenant tree. The Jew first, and then the Gentiles, both in one tree, both of that very same body Israel.

If God had wanted to use the word 'then' (meaning afterward) there, He would most certainly have inspired it to be penned there. There is a perfectly good Greek word that is translated 'then' [epeita], but God does not inspire that word to be used here. The word here is the Greek word [houtos], an adverb, meaning 'in this manner' all Israel shall be saved. By all means, get a Greek lexicon and check this out yourself. I don't expect anyone to take my word for it. The word is translated "SO" because it means "thusly" or "in this manner/fashion/wise." This word does not illustrate a future tense time frame at all, it is simply showing the manner in which All Israel is saved. It is a fact thes Greek word [houtos] doesn't mean 'then' and is never translated then. And so it is obviously incorrect for your learned theologians to read this verse as then or "AS IF" it means then, or "AS IF" it means "after" the Gentiles come in. Here are just a few examples of this word's use in the Bible to demonstrate it's unambiguous meaning.

Romans 9:20
  • "Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?"
Why have you made me in this manner (thusly)?

Hebrews 6:9

  • "But, beloved, we are persuaded better things of you, and things that accompany salvation, though we thus speak."
Though we speak in this manner (thusly).

Hebrews 10:33
  • "Partly, whilst ye were made a gazing stock both by reproaches and afflictions; and partly, whilst ye became companions of them that were so used."
Them that were used in this manner (thusly).

Those words translated "thus" and "so" is this exact same Greek word [houtos] and means, 'in this fashion,' or 'in this way.' It is tortuous of scripture for Dispensationalists and others to claim in Romans chapter 11 the word translated "So," means "then", or that it means after the Gentiles come in, all Israel will be saved. But that is typical of the sloppy exegesis they use. It means exactly what it says there. When the fullness of Gentiles be come in, so (or thus) all Israel will be Saved. It is Biblically backward when God has already declared it was to be the Jew first, and also (additionally) the Gentiles. God doesn't say, "the Jew first, then Gentile, and then the Jew again! That is man's private interpretation.

So let's be clear about that.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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The Typical "misquoting" of scripture by Dispensationalists that we hear and read in their articles again and again. So let's take some time to actually consider it. As the word then is not anywhere there in that context of Romans 11. The question then becomes, why do you keep replacing the word that actually is there?

Romans 11:26
  • "And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:"
This blindness in part, or harness of Israel's heart will continue throughout the New Covenant period until the fullness of the Gentiles are come in. And we read here, "..and so, which is a Greek word meaning "in this way," all Israel shall be saved as it is written," by the Deliverer out of Zion that shall turn away ungodliness from them...............*snip*

Those words translated "thus" and "so" is this exact same Greek word [houtos] and means, 'in this fashion,' or 'in this way.' It is tortuous of scripture for Dispensationalists and others to claim in Romans chapter 11 the word translated "So," means "then", or that it means after the Gentiles come in, all Israel will be saved. But that is typical of the sloppy exegesis they use. It means exactly what it says there. When the fullness of Gentiles be come in, so (or thus) all Israel will be Saved. It is Biblically backward when God has already declared it was to be the Jew first, and also (additionally) the Gentiles. God doesn't say, "the Jew first, then Gentile, and then the Jew again! That is man's private interpretation.

So let'be clear about that.
According to the Greek, you appear to be correct. [I put the lexicon definition of #3779 below].
Also, I don't know if this makes a difference, but it appears "shall be saved" should be rendered as an ongoing action "shall be being saved" as is shown in the greek form of #4982.

One can look at this site to compare Bible versions [which I do with every verse I read, along with the Greek texts]
Romans 11:26 Biblehub

ISA/LLoJ Romans 11:26
and thus in this manner/outwV<3779> all Israel shall be being saved/swqhsetai<4982>, according as it hath been written;
'shall be arriving from out of Sion, the One delivering/rescuing,
and He shall be turning away impiety/irreverence from Jacob [Isaiah 59:20]

Greek New Testament - Parallel Greek New Testament by John Hurt

Roman 11:26
kai outwV paV israhl swqhsetai kaqwV gegraptai
hxei ek siwn o ruomenoV
kai apostreyei asebeiaV apo iakwb

Strong's Concordance with Hebrew and Greek Lexicon

3779. houto (before a vowel houtos adverb from 3778; in this way (referring to what precedes or follows):--after that, after (in) this manner, as, even (so), for all that, like(-wise), no more, on this fashion(-wise), so (in like manner), thus, what.
3778. houtos hoo'-tos, including nominative masculine plural houtoi hoo'-toy, nominative feminine singular haute how'-tay, and nominative feminine plural hautai how'-tahee from the article 3588 and 846; the he (she or it), i.e. this or that (often with article repeated):--he (it was that), hereof, it, she, such as, ....
 
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BABerean2

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The Typical "misquoting" of scripture by Dispensationalists that we hear and read in their articles again and again. So let's take some time to actually consider it. As the word then is not anywhere there in that context of Romans 11. The question then becomes, why do you keep replacing the word that actually is there?

Romans 11:26
  • "And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:"
This blindness in part, or harness of Israel's heart will continue throughout the New Covenant period until the fullness of the Gentiles are come in. And we read here, "..and so, which is a Greek word meaning "in this way," all Israel shall be saved as it is written," by the Deliverer out of Zion that shall turn away ungodliness from them.

Dispensationalists and some others attempt to wrest or rewrite verse 26 to force it to read, "after all the Gentiles come in, "Then" all the nation of Israel is going to be Saved." But even on the face of it, that makes absolutely no sense. All Israel will never be saved, and that 'all' cannot mean the literal nation, as some have alleged. That is totally against everything scripture declares. There is only going to be a remnant of Jacob saved, as has already been stated by the Apostle Paul in the scriptures. It doesn't say most of Israel, it doesn't say the majority of Israel, it says "So all Israel shall be saved."

The second point is that some theologians who realize that it certainly cannot really mean all and refer literally to the nation Israel, hedge and claim that it doesn't really literally mean "all Israel shall be Saved." And these are inevitably those who insist that they take the scriptures very literally. They interpret this to only mean that most of the nation Israel shall be saved. Curiously, they want this literally to refer to the nation Israel, but they don't want it literally mean all Israel. Moreover, this only drives them deeper into confusion and rationalization, because it clearly says when the fullness of the Gentiles have come in, so all Israel shall be saved. If that all means just a remnant, then what is the need for this future salvation program for Israel? Because Paul has stated earlier in this chapter that a remnant of Jews are even now coming in. And if the 'all' here does not mean a remnant, but the whole nation, then it is a deviation from the immutability of God in what He has said, and what has always been. It's an aberration, since the whole nation of Israel has never been saved. The scriptures are not subject to arbitrary or capricious private interpretations. While it is very true that the word "all" is often qualified in scripture to mean "many," there is nothing in the context of this chapter or verse to validate the view that it refers to most of the physical nation of Israel. For Gentiles are not grafted into a physical or literal middle eastern nation of Israel. They are grafted into the Covenant with Israel and remain in their own nations.

Back to my original point, though many Theologians often take license to declare that it says "and then" all Israel "will" be saved, it doesn't really say that at all. Speaking of Israel it says part of it is blinded until the fullness of Gentiles come in (to Israel), and so all Israel shall be saved. This is another very important distinction that is often merely glossed over by those who do not want to accept what is written here. In other words, the context of these scriptures show it is saying that this is how all Israel shall be saved. It will be by some Jewish branches being broken off, and some Gentile not nations branches being grafted in. And when the fullness of these Gentiles are come in, "so" all Israel shall be saved. How? As it is written, by the deliverer out of zion ... So the "all Israel" is all of these who finally end up in this Covenant tree. The Jew first, and then the Gentiles, both in one tree, both of that very same body Israel.

If God had wanted to use the word 'then' (meaning afterward) there, He would most certainly have inspired it to be penned there. There is a perfectly good Greek word that is translated 'then' [epeita], but God does not inspire that word to be used here. The word here is the Greek word [houtos], an adverb, meaning 'in this manner' all Israel shall be saved. By all means, get a Greek lexicon and check this out yourself. I don't expect anyone to take my word for it. The word is translated "SO" because it means "thusly" or "in this manner/fashion/wise." This word does not illustrate a future tense time frame at all, it is simply showing the manner in which All Israel is saved. It is a fact thes Greek word [houtos] doesn't mean 'then' and is never translated then. And so it is obviously incorrect for your learned theologians to read this verse as then or "AS IF" it means then, or "AS IF" it means "after" the Gentiles come in. Here are just a few examples of this word's use in the Bible to demonstrate it's unambiguous meaning.

Romans 9:20
  • "Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?"
Why have you made me in this manner (thusly)?

Hebrews 6:9

  • "But, beloved, we are persuaded better things of you, and things that accompany salvation, though we thus speak."
Though we speak in this manner (thusly).

Hebrews 10:33
  • "Partly, whilst ye were made a gazing stock both by reproaches and afflictions; and partly, whilst ye became companions of them that were so used."
Them that were used in this manner (thusly).

Those words translated "thus" and "so" is this exact same Greek word [houtos] and means, 'in this fashion,' or 'in this way.' It is tortuous of scripture for Dispensationalists and others to claim in Romans chapter 11 the word translated "So," means "then", or that it means after the Gentiles come in, all Israel will be saved. But that is typical of the sloppy exegesis they use. It means exactly what it says there. When the fullness of Gentiles be come in, so (or thus) all Israel will be Saved. It is Biblically backward when God has already declared it was to be the Jew first, and also (additionally) the Gentiles. God doesn't say, "the Jew first, then Gentile, and then the Jew again! That is man's private interpretation.

So let's be clear about that.

What you have said agrees completely with what Paul said in Romans 9:6, and Romans 9:8, and Romans 9:27.

Dispensationalists have to ignore what Paul said in these earlier passages of the same letter, in order to make their doctrine work.

The word "so" in Romans 11:26 refers back to the manner of salvation in the verse below.

Rom 11:23 And they also, if they do not continue in unbelief, will be grafted in, for God is able to graft them in again.

Paul provides no path to salvation outside of the New Covenant Church, in Romans chapter 11.


.
 
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TribulationSigns

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According to the Greek, you appear to be correct. [I put the lexicon definition of #3779 below].

Good job, LittleLambofJesus, for doing some researching.

Romans 11:26 and in this way all Israel will be saved. As it is written: "The deliverer will come from Zion; he will turn godlessness away from Jacob.

Christ was saying that once all Gentiles He intended to include into his kingdom through the testimony of the church, all been coming in, and so all Israel will be saved. The big question is, which Israel? Dispensationalists, of course, will like us to believe it is national Israel. But that is not what Christ talked about. It is Covenant Israel, making up of all Jewish and Gentile Saints from old and new testament IN CHRIST.

Although the kingdom was taken from Old Testament Israel at the Cross (Matthew 21:24-43), there were some Jews along with the Gentiles to be added into Covenant Israel during the New Testament period. That is why the blindness was in PART happening to Israel (Jews) so that some Jews would be allowed to graft back into Covenant Tree along with the Gentiles. However, the point God is making here is that once all Gentiles that God intended to be included in His Kingdom, has been coming in, IN THIS MATTER, All Covenant Israel shall be saved. There won't be a future national Israel redemption as many dispensationalists liked us to believe.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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The Typical "misquoting" of scripture by Dispensationalists that we hear and read in their articles again and again. So let's take some time to actually consider it............................*snip*

Dispensationalists and some others attempt to wrest or rewrite verse 26 to force it to read, "after all the Gentiles come in, "Then" all the nation of Israel is going to be Saved." But even on the face of it, that makes absolutely no sense. .............*snip*
Everything you ever wanted to know about the unbiblical doctrine of Dispensationalism but were afraid to ask, and for good reason!
I call it the "spider web" doctrine.

Dispensationalist "cob webs" ^_^

Dispensationalism – Grace Online Library

quote from site:

"snip*...........Dispensationalism has a pervasive influence not only extensively, but also intensively.
It is usually the case that those who embrace its teachings as a system are affected in almost every area of their theological thinking.
So pervasive is its effect on those who have become its pupils, that even those who have come to see the error of its basic presuppositions testify that dispensational cobwebs have remained in their thinking for a long time after the initial sweeping took place.................

...........................
af48de167fa9132de4c3c2d05d597e0f.gif
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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LittleLambofJesus said:
According to the Greek, you appear to be correct. [I put the lexicon definition of #3779 below]
.
Good job, LittleLambofJesus, for doing some researching.
Thank you and also your posts are edifying to me.

About 9 yrs ago, I created a thread on the translation of the Book of Romans.
Now that I have a lot more and better Greek and Hebrew Bible study resources and sites, I am going back thru it and "refine" it when I get time.


.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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The Typical "misquoting" of scripture by Dispensationalists that we hear and read in their articles again and again. So let's take some time to actually consider it..........*snip*

Those words translated "thus" and "so" is this exact same Greek word [houtos] and means, 'in this fashion,' or 'in this way.' It is tortuous of scripture for Dispensationalists and others to claim in Romans chapter 11 the word translated "So," means "then", or that it means after the Gentiles come in, all Israel will be saved. But that is typical of the sloppy exegesis they use. It means exactly what it says there. When the fullness of Gentiles be come in, so (or thus) all Israel will be Saved.

It is Biblically backward when God has already declared it was to be the Jew first, and also (additionally) the Gentiles.
God doesn't say, "the Jew first, then Gentile, and then the Jew again!. That is man's private interpretation.
II never heard of that before and don't understand how one could view it like that.
That phrase is used in 3 verses of Paul's Epistles:

Romans 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God that brings salvation to everyone who believes: first to the Jew, then to the Gentile.

Romans 1:16
for I am not ashamed of the good news [of the Christ], for it is the power of God to salvation to every one who is believing,
both to Jew first, and to Greek.


Scrivener 1894 Textus Receptus
ou gar epaiscunomai to euaggelion [tou cristou] dunamiV gar qeou estin eiV swthrian panti tw pisteuonti
ioudaiw te prwton kai ellhni
Rom 2:9
There will be trouble and calamity for everyone who keeps on doing what is evil—for the Jew first and also for the Gentile.[fn]
ioudaiou te prwton kai ellhnoV

Rom 2:10

But there will be glory and honor and peace from God for all who do good—for the Jew first and also for the Gentile.
ioudaiw te prwton kai ellhni


 
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