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Quote one or two and show me how I am wrong?You've posted several times that aion cannot mean finite because it means infinite. That's two options.
Please show me where I have asked for evidence for an event that hasn't happened yet?What they believed doesn't change the Scriptures. Jesus quoted Isaiah 66 and called it Gehenna. He was speaking of a future event. You keep arguing that there is no evidence. We wouldn't expect to find evidence of an event that hasn't occurred yet.
Yet you've used the very word in question to do so. You believe you've proven your point because you're using aion as eternal. Yet that has been refuted. Thus your quote of Rev 20 has not proven your case about the Lake of fire.
Arguments and opinions are not proof. Nothing I have posted has been refuted. And I am confident that it never will be by anyone posting here.
This argument doesn't even make sense. If ETC were true then the wicked would suffer for eternity. So, in the end no one would die in the second death. Why is it called the second death if no one dies?
Please show me where anyone/anything is thrown into the LOF and they die. It ain't there.
Also it's called the second death. It's the second of a kind. The second means it's like the first, it's the second one. The first one is physical death. Likewise the second one is physical death. Thus we see in Isaiah 66 burning corpses, not souls, not spirits, but corpses.
While the LOF is called "the second death" not one verse says that anyone/anything is thrown into the LOF then they die. What is the relevance of "spirits?"
Your argument makes sense only if one reads the aion/aionios verses with the presupposition that aion/aionios always, ever, only mean age/ages/age lasting and never, ever mean eternity/eternal. But as I have shown from the BGAD lexicon aion means eternity and aionios means eternal.I do. I'm always aware of anything that I infer. I don't present it as fact. My point is that you're trying to prove your argument based on inferences rather than facts. Given that there are quite a few passages that use aion for a finite period of time it should give you pause to rethink your position. Additional evidence can always present itself that could make an inference wrong.
You contradict yourself with your assumptions/presuppositions. How can Jesus reign only for an age, I assume you mean finite period, but His kingdom, that which he reigns, never ends.Luke 1:30-33
(30) But the angel said to her, "Do not be afraid, Mary; you have found favor with God.
(31) You will conceive and give birth to a son, and you are to call him Jesus.
(32) He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. The Lord God will give him the throne of his father David,
(33) and he will reign over Jacob's descendants forever; his kingdom will never end."
Yet I notice you made no attempt to do so. Why? Do you not agree with what Paul said? Paul's statement seems pretty clear to me and the word aion is in question. Maybe we should interpret both passages so that they harmonize. If aion means an age, then the passage in Luke would say that Christ will reign for an age and His kingdom will have no end. That agrees with what Paul said, Christ shall reign until He has put down all authorities and then turn the kingdom over to the Father. This way both passages harmonize and John's statement fits with this too.
You ignore the fact that I said we interpret words of Paul to agree with the unequivocal words of the angel of God in Luke. But you evidently want to twist the words of the angel to make them agree with your interpretation of what Paul said.I really find your statement troubling. Do you think the reverse is true? Wasn't Paul personally instructed by Christ? Didn't Christ bring the word of God to man? I mean really, what do you make of Paul's words. It seems to me that you've simply rejected what he said. Do we pick and choose the parts of Scripture that we want to believe?
Another thing to remember is that Luke was a man just like Paul. I'm pretty sure you didn't personally hear the angle speak to Mary.
Are you saying that we should not believe the words of the angel that Luke recorded?
Previously posted.
What exactly do you think this proves? Those who have part of the first resurrection shall reign with God and Christ for a thousand years. This says nothing about the length of Christs reign.
Revelation 11:15 And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever.
Revelation 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
Christ's reign lasts for ever and ever, the saints only reign with Him for 1000 years.What exactly do you think this proves? Those who have part of the first resurrection shall reign with God and Christ for a thousand years. This says nothing about the length of Christs reign.
Revelation 11:15 And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever.
Revelation 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
Do you suppose that John had Paul's writings when he wrote Rev? Paul's words cannot refute the words of the angel of God in Luke and the words of John in Rev.Correct, it doesn't state it plainly. However, given Paul's statement it does bear on the subject.
You argue from your interpretation of scripture which appears to support your assumptions/presuppositions while you try to dismiss scripture which proves you wrong.I don't know about the " UR/annihilationist argument." I simply argue from the Scriptures.
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