That's a misunderstanding of how God preserves His words, and how translation works. There are no originals around that anyone is aware of. Not one, laying around. God's word is preserved in my hands today, Psalms 12:6,7, which in the English, is the King James Bible.
Is the word "other" inserted as italics in the KJB? Sure, as are many other words,"the", "sacrifice", "as", "of", "by", etc, etc. Needful for translation. See Genesis 20:16 KJB, first known instance that I am aware of:
Genesis 20:16 KJB - And unto Sarah he said, Behold, I have given thy brother a thousand pieces of silver: behold, he is to thee a covering of the eyes, unto all that are with thee, and with all other: thus she was reproved.
In this instance, the word
"other" was added through translation, because the sentence required this to be so to be properly rendered into the English, and means
"... and all else [besides]".
The next known instance is Genesis 25:23 KJB:
Genesis 25:23 KJB - And the LORD said unto her, Two nations are in thy womb, and two manner of people shall be separated from thy bowels; and the one people shall be stronger than the other people; and the elder shall serve the younger.
In this instance, the word "the other" was again added through translation, because the sentence again required this to be so to be properly rendered into the English language, and means "... the one nation in the womb will become stronger than the other of the two nations that are in the womb ..." Notice, the words "two manner of people", require the additional words to be clear, this one nation to be identified over the other [or second] nation.
And so on through the KJB. There is not an instance, of where the translators added the word "other" where it was not necessary for the translation.
However, in the case of the NWT, it is the bias of their belief that precedes [apriori], that requires them to insert the word "other" [4 times] in the Colossians 1 text, where there is no such warrant to do so when translating. That is the difference. Also, in so adding the word "other" alters the text seriously from one meaning to an entirely different and opposit meaning.
In the KJB, Jesus is eternal Deity, the person of the Son, who created all things.
In the NWT, Jesus is the created arch-type [by the Father, at some point in eternity past], a created son [though above all others], who then created everything else.
The two are not the same obviously.
The translators of the King James Bible, of course have a bias [all men do], but that bias was to be faithful to the word of God an its translation, without altering its meaning, even if they disagreed with what it said. There are Anglican and Puritan, etc translators. There was balance, and even moreso, the general church itself could input, and if needed I can cite this for you, from the rules laid down for the translation groups, at Oxford, Cambridge and Westminster.
I already agreed to that, from the scriptures [KJB] I cited [
1]. The LXX citations, only agreed with that position defined.
Again, I am not arguing against any time element in regards the definition of the word firstborn.
I stated that here [
2].
Here is what the text says by translation:
Colossians 1:15 KJB - Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
Notice, it does not say "first created", in any way. Even the NWT does not say 'first-created' [yet, though they keep changing it, so who knows]. The context, the very words being translated, teach that it is by Jesus, that everything that is created, was created, as John 1:1-3, 1 John 1:1-3; Hebrews 1:1-2, etc, show.
Jesus is the "only begotten" of the Father, the only true and eternal self-existing Son. All others are created or adopted sons [angels and humans].
John 1:14 KJB - And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of
the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
John 1:18 KJB - No man hath seen God at any time;
the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
John 3:16 KJB - For God so loved the world, that he gave
his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
John 3:18 KJB - He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of
the only begotten Son of God.
Typology [Abraham did have another son, Ishmael, before Isaac, but Ishmael was born through doubt, and Isaac through faith in the promise of God, and thus is the "only begotten" of Abraham, the real son]:
Hebrews 11:17 KJB - By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,
1 John 4:9 KJB - In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent
his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.
If the WTS would have this text say Jesus is the "firstborn of all creation", that would include animals, bacteria, rock [rocks are born???], water [water is born???], particles [particles [ions. neutrons, etc] are born???], animate and inanimate, etc. Is that how I am to continue to take the thought from the WTS? I pray not.
The NWT says,
Colossians 1:15-16 NWT [silver sword] 15 He is the image of the invisible God,m the firstborn of all creation;n 16 because by means of him all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible,o whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All other things have been created through himp and for him.
However, before even getting to that part b, look at part a, "Who is the image of the invisible God". Let that sink in a moment. Think about that. It ties into Hebrews 1:
Hebrews 1:3 KJB - Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
No created being can be "the
express image of his [the Father's] person". Why? Think about this. Secondly, it teaches Jesus to be the "visible" [manifested, revealed, see 1 John 1:1-3, He is the "eternal life" that is "with" the "Father"; John 1:1-3, are saying the same, that the "word" was "with" the "Father", and let there be "Light" is the manifestation of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ, 2 Corinthians 4:4-6 KJB] JEHOVAH, while the Father is the "invisible" JEHOVAH. None but JEHOVAH Jesus, could save mankind "by himself". Catch this. He did this "alone" [Isaiah 63:3 KJB] He was forsaken of Father, Holy Spirit [My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me ...' Psalms 22 KJB, etc], angels, and man [".... and of the people there was none with him ..."], because of our sins which He took. "Alone" with the weight of all the world of sin. "Alone" ... let that sink in. No creature could ever do that, and in fact, your own sins, and mine own sins alone would crush us, would crush any other creature, angel or not, let alone others sins added to it, but yet He took it all upon Himself, "alone"; think of the Almighty strength to bear the sin of a whole world ...
If we compare to Hebrews 1:5-6, we see Paul parallel in language:
Hebrews 1:5 KJB - For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son,
this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?
Hebrews 1:6 KJB - And again, when he bringeth in
the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And
let all the angels of God worship him.
[Again, for Hebrews 1:6 and Psalms 97:7 NWT, see [1]]
Same word used, but translated as "firstbegotten". How then can Jesus be both the "only begotten", and also the "first begotten"? One deals with His eternal Godhead ["only begotten of the Father"], and the second, deals with Him as the redeemer being born into the world as the second/last Adam, and being the brother to many other sons of God ["first begotten"], He having the pre-eminence, though born in the middle of human history.
In Revelation 1:5, we see John's parallel to Colossians 1:18 KJB:
Revelation 1:5 KJB - And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,
This speaks to Jesus' pre-eminence of resurrection. Though there were others literally first resurrected before Jesus, such as Moses [Matthew 17:1-12; Mark 9:1-13; Luke 9:27-36; John 11:25; 2 Peter 1:16; Romans 5:14; Jude 1:9 KJB], but Moses was only resurrected before, in the promise of the redeemer to come, thus this was the first time that death had been permanently broken [by Jesus, as a type of what Jesus would later do in Himself], and so Moses, "
he was raised to immortal life, holding his title in the name of the Redeemer". Others had been resurrected before, but fell again into the sleep of death at some point later, Lazarus, etc.
What is the context of Colossian 1:15? It is in association with being born [as a man, and of the Holy Spirit, and in Jesus case, He came through the woman; Galatians 4:4 KJB, a "body" of the fallen sinful flesh of mankind [Romans 8:3 KJB, etc], was prepared for Him; Hebrews 10:5 KJB]:
Colossians 1:13 KJB - Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath translated us into the kingdom of his dear Son:
Colossians 1:14 KJB - In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:
Colossians 1:18 KJB - And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.
Notice, that the context, speaks of Jesus being the "head" over a "body". This was so, because of Jesus took upon himself the fallen sinful flesh man mankind, to redeem us. Notice all of the connecting words, about "blood" and "redemption", "forgiveness of sins", "delivered", "translated", "church", "body", "from the dead" [resurrection], and the "preeminence". The context is the focus of the human life of Jesus, the New Man, the second/last Adam [1 Corinthians 15:45 KJB]. Therefore, in Colossians 1:15:
Colossians 1:15 KJB - Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
Why does Paul make the connection then with "every creature"? It is because, since He is their [the creatures] Creator, it was He who took the responsibility upon Himself to redeem those who were fallen because of sin.
Colossians 1:23 KJB - If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel, which ye have heard, and which was preached to every creature which is under heaven; whereof I Paul am made a minister;
Mark 16:15 KJB - And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
Notice, in Jesus is the New Creation, and thus He is the Head of all of it, the First in order, rank, etc:
2 Corinthians 5:17 KJB - Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.
Galatians 6:15 For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision, but a new creature.
Therefore, the "firstborn" deals with the Gospel, and the mystery of Godliness:
1 Timothy 3:16 KJB - And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
Since the Son of God, was come in the "flesh", and died upon the cross, and was rose again in the flesh and bones and glorified [Luke 24:39 KJB], He is the first, the head, the beginning, the new Adam, and this all who have faith in Him, are His children [Genesis 2:23], and His brethren [thus the first among many brethren; see Hebrews 2 KJB].
Jesus' flesh was "made of a woman", even "prepared", but He, Himself has existed from eternity "with" the Father, ever sitting at the right hand of the Father, until it was said, "Lo, I come ..."
Goodie!, goodie!, extra credits. Lets go for a 4.5 GPA
We cannot, and never said we could. The bible [KJB] is again, defined, as thus, as I had stated similarly here [
1]:
Isaiah 28:10 KJB - For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little:
1 Corinthians 2:13 KJB - Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
Genesis 40:8 KJB - And they said unto him, We have dreamed a dream, and there is no interpreter of it. And Joseph said unto them, Do not interpretations belong to God? tell me them, I pray you.
The same word, used elsewhere does bear weight on that word used elsewhere in scripture. When doing a study of any particular word, we go through the entire Bible and see it in every context, in English. Then afterwards use a concordance, to locate other places where such a word may be translated differently and again see them in their contexts, and I also look at the surrounding and related words, and all forms of the word [-ed, -ing, -eth, -s, -ly, a-, un-, etc].
Has nothing to do with a word I do not like. All of the words in Colossians 1:15-18, etc are perfect in the King James as they are.
You should ask the WTS the question, why they felt the need to make an addition, which clearly alters the text to prove their apriori. It wasn't in the translation, and definitely changes the meaning 180 degrees, which is a far cry from simply adding the italicized word "other" [etc] in other places which simply attempts to convey a more smooth reading, as in Genesis 20:16 KJB, etc.
If we took the italicized words ["other"] out of all KJB texts, it would not change the meaning of those sentences 180 degrees, as does the NWT "addition" in Colossians [4 times mind you]. The removal of all these below, would make for a more harsh reading, but would be unchanged in context.
Here are all the known instances, that I am aware [I apologize if I missed any], of in the KJB with the added italicized words "other" in them [I looked these up myself]:
OT:
Genesis 20:16, 25:23, 31:50, 41:3, 47:21; Exodus 4:7, 26:3, 28:10,25,27[x2], 30:32, 36:10, 37:8, 39:20[x2]; Leviticus 11:23, 13:26, 20:24,26, 25:53; Numbers 10:21, 36:3; Deuteronomy 13:7; Joshua 11:19, 21:27, 22:7; Judges 7:7, 9:44, 13:10, 16:17; 1 Samuel 30:20; 2 Samuel 1:24, 17:9, 24:22; 1 Kings 7:6; 2 Kings 12:7; 1 Chronicles 9:32; 2 Chronicles 13:9, 20:1, 25:12, 29:34, 30:23, 32:17,22, 34:12, 35:13; Nehemiah 11:1; Esther 2:12; Job 8:12, 24:24; Psalms 73:5[x2], 85:10; Isaiah 26:13; Jeremiah 12:12, 25:33, 32:20; Ezra 16:34; Ezekiel 41:21, 48:8; Daniel 3:21; Hosea 9:1, 13:10
NT:
Acts 5:29; 1 Corinthians 11:21
What do you immediately notice, between the Hebrew and Koine Greek translation of the scripture into the English, in regards the addition of italicized words "other"? The NT basically doesn't need a single addition in the KJB, I was actually surprised at this, as it was unexpected. Therefore, even the balance of percentage is against what the NWT did. Yet, there's more:
Therefore, even with such overwhelming evidence, should the WTS just be purposefully and intentfully adding the word "other" 4 more times [without italics
* [
1]] into Colossians 1, to suit what they think/believe [apriori] it says?
*Colossians 1:16-17 NWT - 16 because by means of him all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible,o whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All other things have been created through himp and for him. 17 Also, he is before all other things,q and by means of him all other things were made to exist,
Where are the italics, when they know for a fact that the Koine Greek word for "other" [allos or loipos, etc], is not in a single ms, etc?
The King James translators were honest in what they did.
Do you see the same integrity for the WTS producers? I personally do not. I am not asking you to explain for them. I am just asking you to stand back and look at it. Ask yourself, how many persons among the WTS, Jehovah's Witnesses, know that there is not a single Koine Greek authority [or any langauge MS, authority] for those 4 additions? You ought to be asking the WTS, why aren't they in Italics? Do you [the WTS] need to be hiding such things, if we have the truth? Aren't there better ways to explain a text, than to simply insert 4 unauthorized words without italics to prove what we believe? Do you tell people even in the footnote that they are additions to the text and not 'original'? I see no footnotes to this effect, though the NWT [silver sword] is replete with footnotes. There WTS, why no footnotes here instructing the reader? If I were WTS/JW, I would be asking those questions.
I would not say that the word "God" implies "love", but that He is Love, power, wisdom, etc. it is His character.
God is "the Truth", and Truth is eternal, uncreated.
John 14:6 KJB - Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.
No created being could say that, ever. Not you, not I, not any created being, not Gabriel, etc.
Jesus doesn't have the truth, the way and the life. He is the truth, the way and the life. We don't go to Jesus to get "truth", "way" and "life" and walk away. We go to Him, and stay with Him, for to leave Him, is to leave the truth, the way and the life.
No, because it was never my argument to do what you suggest.
No and Yes, as there is a place for substitution, notice that ways of the Lord are equal:
Ezekiel 18:25 KJB - Yet ye say, The way of the Lord is not equal. Hear now, O house of Israel; Is not my way equal? are not your ways unequal?
Ezekiel 18:29 KJB - Yet saith the house of Israel, The way of the Lord is not equal. O house of Israel, are not my ways equal? are not your ways unequal?
His word, like an equation, is perfectly balanced.
So, "No", in the sense that it would not ever mean not God. God is love [1 John 4:8,16], therefore in 1 Corinthians 13, substitute the KJB word "charity", with "God" and get real depth out of it as I have.
So, "Yes", in that a substitution can take place, and retain all its depth. For instance:
Romans 6:14 KJB - For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.
Romans 6:14 KJB - For X shall not have Y over you: for ye are not Z, but under A.
Let's do the substitution properly, in equality:
X What is
"sin"? -- 1 John 3:4 KJB - Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for
sin is the transgression of the law.
Y What is
"dominion"? -- Matthew 20:25 KJB - But Jesus called them unto him, and said, Ye know that the princes of the Gentiles
exercise dominion over them, and they that are great
exercise authority upon them.
Daniel 7:27 KJB - And the kingdom and dominion, and the greatness of the kingdom under the whole heaven, shall be given to the people of the saints of the most High, whose kingdom is an everlasting kingdom, and all dominions shall serve and obey him.
etc.
Z What is
"under the law"? -- Romans 3:19 KJB - Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are
under the law: that
every mouth may be stopped, and
all the world may become guilty before God.
A What is
"grace"? -- 2 Corinthians 12:9 KJB And he said unto me,
My grace is sufficient for thee: for
my strength is made perfect in weakness. Most gladly therefore will I rather glory in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon me.
Titus 2:11 KJB - For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,
Titus 2:12 KJB - Teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world;
Acts 4:33 KJB - And with great power gave the apostles witness of the resurrection of the Lord Jesus: and great grace was upon them all.
etc.
Therefore:
Romans 6:14 KJB - For X shall not have Y over you: for ye are not Z, but under A.
Romans 6:14 KJB - For [the transgression of the law] shall not have [exercise [of] authority] over you: for ye are not [guilty before God], but under [God's great power, which is made perfect in weakness, teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world].
Substitution is perfect, and still balanced, still equal.
Yet there are those who make mistakes in doing this, and unbalance the equation of God's word, for instance:
Romans 3:31 KJB - Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.
Some people [incorrectly] think that [the Law = 10 Commandments = Old Covenant] [this will be X]. Yet it is not true, and we can know by this and other means. Plug in that X into the word "Law" in Romans 3:31.
Romans 3:31 KJB - Do we then make void X through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish X.
Romans 3:31 KJB - Do we then make void Old Covenant through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish Old Covenant.
Makes no sense whatsoever now. The equation is unbalanced. This because the Law [10 Commandments] is not [and never was] the Old Covenant itself, at all. Many have a massive misunderstanding here on what the Old Covenant was. For another time.
Again, it was not my argument, if you would more carefully read my responses, including this one.
Yes, John 1:1 can have substitution, but only with equal words. For instance, Read John 1:1-3 and 1 John 1:1-3. They are parallel, using slightly differing words.
John 1:1 KJB - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Now, let's do some equal substitution, rightly dividing the word of God.
John 1:1 KJB - In the beginning was X, and X was with God, and X was God.
Who/What is "the Word"?
[1]
Luke 8:11 KJB - Now the parable is this:
The seed is the word of God.
Subquestion: Who/what is "the seed"?
Galatians 3:16 KJB - Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.
[2]
Revelation 19:11 KJB - And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was
called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war.
Revelation 19:12 KJB - His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself.
Revelation 19:13 KJB - And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called
The Word of God.
Subquestion: Who/what is "True"?
John 14:6 KJB - Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.
John 17:17 KJB - Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.
1 Kings 17:24 KJB - And the woman said to Elijah, Now by this I know that thou art a man of God, and that the word of the LORD in thy mouth is truth.
etc.
Now, let's do some equal substitution, rightly dividing the word of God.
John 1:1 KJB - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
John 1:1 KJB - In the beginning was X, and X was with God, and X was God.
John 1:1 KJB - In the beginning was Jesus, and Jesus was with God, and Jesus was God.
John 1:1 KJB - In the beginning was the Truth, and the Truth was with God, and the Truth was God.
John 1:1 KJB - In the beginning was the Seed, and the Seed was with God, and the Seed was God.
All are equal.
John 1:1 KJB - In the beginning was Seed, and Truth was with God, and Jesus was God.
And since "God is love":
John 1:1 KJB - In the beginning was Seed, and Truth was with Love, and Jesus was Love.
Love requires 2 or more.
This was why I asked you the question about Genesis.
Which came first, the tree, seed or the fruit? The natural things are explaining to us spiritual things. Natural dealing with created, and the spiritual dealing with eternal Creator/s [in a way we might understand, as no man can fully comperehend JEHOVAH Elohiym]:
The "Tree", "Seed" and "Fruit" existed eternally together. The Tree of Eternal Life.
such an one caught up to the third heaven. - 2 Corinthians 12:2
