DreamerOfTheHeart

I Am What I Am
Jul 11, 2017
1,162
392
53
Houston
✟39,308.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
A KING JAMES VERSION SERMON:

- Hebrews 4:12 (KJV)
- Psalm 12:6-7 (KJV)


Notice the word "preserve", meaning God's word is already present in our times.

- Galatians 1:6-7 (of 1:1-12) (KJV)

Notice "of Christ", meaning sadly there are trying Christians attracted by the overwhelming affection of Christ, only to be misled by a Gospel that is not "of Christ"

- 2 Corinthians 11:3-4 (KJV)

Scriptural changes differing in meaning broadly spread through the many so called, "modern English Bible Translations" published since the King James Version Bible (KJV) or its birth in 1611 as the Authorized Version (AV).

Here is our History:
The King James Version Bible: Translated from the Textus Receptus and finished in 1611; Through God's will a breakthrough for the Protestant Reformation, for Christian believers with beliefs protestant to the Roman Catholic Church.


The MOST respected Bible, standing out as a strong spiritual asset.
The one and only true word of God (in the English Language).
The Holy Bible.


- Proverbs 30:5-6 (KJV)

Pre 1611 (Old Testament):
Was known to be in the Hebrew Language.


Pre 1611 (New Testament):
Before year 1611, The New Testament was present on earth in the Greek language; in texts known as the Textus Receptus, Yet, not yet translated into the English Language.


Pre 1611 English Bible translations (To solve confusion):
These books were not known to be as spiritually profitable, but are very evident that the puritan reformer group in their day were not happy with Catholicism and the Roman Catholic Church, desperate and determined for liberty in faith.

NIV, Message have considerable information KJV does not have. We simply do not speak that version of english anymore, so it is placing an undue burden on people.
 
  • Like
Reactions: pescador
Upvote 0

GingerBeer

Cool and refreshing with a kick!
Mar 26, 2017
3,511
1,348
Australia
✟119,825.00
Country
Australia
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
- 2 Corinthians 11:3-4 (KJV)
- Galatians 1:6-7 (of Galatians 1:1-12) (KJV)
What does the Bible say? If we believe in different Gospels of Christ, these scriptures show that we do not share the same faith.
I do not trust in the bible for salvation. Do you? Jesus is Lord and saviour. The bible is not Jesus.
 
  • Winner
Reactions: pescador
Upvote 0

Bible Highlighter

Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
Site Supporter
Jul 22, 2014
41,508
7,861
...
✟1,194,203.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
This is circular reasoning, it is nonsense. You simply start from the assumption that the King James version is superior, even God-ordained. On the contrary, Scripture tells us nothing about the value of one translation over another.

First, I did not wake up one day with a light shining upon the KJV. I investigated the observable evidence to see if there is any truth to the claim that the KJV stands above other translations in the fact that Modern Translations appear to attack or water down what the KJV says. From that point on, the pile of evidences in favor of the KJV against the Modern Translations has only grown since that time. Even so called "Bible contradictions" are not really contradictions when examined more closely under comparing Scripture with Scripture and by asking God for help in understanding His Word.

Second, God's Word is not the kind of thing that always hits a person over the head in what it is trying to say. The Bible is not a science book and yet there are scientific truths within God's Word.

Sir Author Conan Doyle said, "Once you eliminate the impossible, whatever remains, no matter how improbable, must be the truth."

If I told you I built a plane using instructions that were missing slightly (and or even corrupted by an enemy), would you want to fly in that plane? My guess is probably not. Yet, you have no problem placing your spiritual soul in the hands of an imperfect Word or a perfect form of God's Word that only exists in a dead language in the past (and where one can make their own private interpretation upon God's Word more easily because nobody truly knows Biblical Hebrew and Biblical Greek unlike the culture that did know it when it existed).

The issue we are talking about here is a spiritual one. Do you agree? The Scriptures say, faith comes by hearing and hearing the Word of God. So you get your faith by hearing the Holy Scriptures. What was one of the tactics the devil used to corrupt God's Word? He subtly changed God's Word to make it say something slightly different. It was not always a major and noticeable big change always. The devil had got Eve to doubt and then disregard God's Word through subtly.

"And said, O full of all subtilty and all mischief, thou child of the devil, thou enemy of all righteousness, wilt thou not cease to pervert the right ways of the Lord?" (Acts of the Apostles 13:10).

Yet, you would have me believe that no such subtle attack upon God's Word exists today.
Yet, I can see such an attack all too clearly.
The choice is whether or not you choose to see it or not.
 
  • Winner
Reactions: Heavenhome
Upvote 0

Bible Highlighter

Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
Site Supporter
Jul 22, 2014
41,508
7,861
...
✟1,194,203.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
Look at it this way. The King James Bible is almost contemporary with the Shakespeare plays. Everyone knows that Shakespeare, for all his virtues, is not easy for modern readers to understand.

For instance, in one scene in Hamlet, he is talking to his friends and he says, "Buzz, buzz."

Do you know what Hamlet meant by "Buzz, buzz" without looking it up?

Elizabethan English contains many figures of speech that are highly confusing for people living today.

Well, first, I am not one of those KJV people who is going to bend the truth and say the KJV is easy to understand. Granted, while the New Testament is pretty understandable for the most part, the Old Testament is another matter. I do not disagree with you that the KJV can be difficult. This is why I would recommend believers to compare the KJV with Modern Translations so as to help update the language only. However, they should make the KJV their final word of authority. For if one does not have a clear and final word of authority, then they are trying to make themselves in not being accountable to every word of God in what it says. At least, that is my opinion anyways. Granted, not believing the KJV is the perfect Word of God is not a salvation issue. However, I believe that not having a perfect word of God can lead a believer to doubt God's Word altogether if they are not careful.

Second, you really cannot make an argument for how God's Word is an instaneous transfer of knowledge that is quick and easy like a Matrix download to learn Kung Fu. 2 Timothy 2:15 says study to show yourself approved unto God in the KJV. However, in a Modern Translation, it says something else. It does not tell you to study God's Word in most cases to be approved unto God. Also, Jesus spoke many in parables and only gave the explanation to those who were believers. In other words, we have to seek God's Word for the meaning. If we see a verse or passage that does not make sense, we should not try to change God's Word and say it is an error, but we should let God's Word change us. But sadly, the Modern Translations have already laid the ground work of change. It is a subtle change. A change that you may not notice or even care about. But we should care about truth in God's Word even if it is one word or three words. Every little bit of truth of God's Word should matter to us.
 
Last edited:
  • Agree
Reactions: Heavenhome
Upvote 0

Bible Highlighter

Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
Site Supporter
Jul 22, 2014
41,508
7,861
...
✟1,194,203.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
I do not trust in the bible for salvation. Do you? Jesus is Lord and saviour. The bible is not Jesus.

Faith comes by hearing and hearing the Word of God (Romans 10:17). The written Word of God testifies of Jesus Christ (John 5:39). So when you say you do not trust the Bible for your salvation, then you are seeking out another way to Jesus. It is only the Jesus of the Bible that we can gain salvation. Jesus is never separate from God's Word. They breath in harmony together as one. It's why Jesus tells us to to abide in Him and His words. It's why Jesus quotes Scripture many times as an authority of God.
 
  • Agree
Reactions: Heavenhome
Upvote 0

Bible Highlighter

Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
Site Supporter
Jul 22, 2014
41,508
7,861
...
✟1,194,203.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
NIV, Message have considerable information KJV does not have. We simply do not speak that version of english anymore, so it is placing an undue burden on people.

I believe the KJV is the perfect Word of God and is divine in origin and that Modern Translations are corrupt big time. However, that does not mean I do not read Modern Translations so as to help update the 1600's English at times. I merely look at Modern Translations sort of like a person would sift through dirt to get to the gold that is in the KJV.
 
  • Winner
Reactions: Heavenhome
Upvote 0

Bible Highlighter

Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
Site Supporter
Jul 22, 2014
41,508
7,861
...
✟1,194,203.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
For those who are in doubt, and want to believe there is a perfect Word of God,

Here are some explanations to Supposed Bible Contradictions in the KJV:

A. Supposted Contradiction #1.

Did Solomon have 40,000 stalls for his horses (1 Kings 4:26), or 4,000 stalls (2 Chronicles 9:25)?

Firstly, it should be noted that this “supposed contradiction” does not appear in the New International Version, which states that Solomon had “four thousand stalls” in both verses. However, the NIV translation mistakenly states that Solomon had twelve thousand horses, when in fact the original Hebrew text (and all other English translations of it) state that Solomon had twelve thousand horsemen. This error results in three horses per chariot (an unusually odd number) and three horses per stall (which seems a little crowded). Opening a lexicon, we see that the King James Version gives an accurate rendering of the Hebrew text (correctly translating the Hebrew parash as “horsemen”), and for this reason we know that this translation can be trusted in accurately explaining this “contradiction”.

With that said, let’s examine these two verses. 1 Kings 4:26 states, “Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses for his chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen” while 2 Chronicles 9:25 states “Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen”.

1 Kings 4:26 counts only the horses that were intended to be used “for his chariots”. On the other hand, 2 Chronicles 9:25 counts both the horses “and chariots” together.

1 Kings 4:26 states that Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses, meaning that he had forty-thousand stalls with horses in them. 2 Chronicles 9:25 counts both horses and chariots together. If each chariot stall contains within it ten horse stalls (perhaps one stall for each horse that pulls the chariot) then there is no contradiction.

Solomon had 40,000 stalls for his horses. Solomon had 4,000 chariots (three riders per chariot, since we know from both 1 Kings 4:26 and 2 Chronicles 9:25 that he had twelve thousand horsemen) and every chariot had its own stall. Chariots are pulled by multiple horses – in this case, ten horses. Each chariot stall had within it ten individual horse stalls – one for each horse that pulled that specific chariot.

In fact, here is a similar one.

Did David capture 700 of King Zobah's horsemen (2 Samuel 8:4), or was it 7,000 (1 Chronicles 18:4)?

2 Samuel 8:4 says that David took 700 horsemen, while 1 Chronicles 18:4 says that David took 7000 horsemen. These verses are not in contradiction. The King James version correctly describes 1000 chariots in both 2 Samuel 8:4 and 1 Chronicles 18:4. Both verses also state that David reserved 100 chariots. Combining the information from these two verses we see that David took 700 horsemen for the chariots he kept, but he took a total of 7000 horsemen away from the enemy king. The two different numbers for the number of chariots provide us with a consistent 7:1 horseman-to-chariot ratio. This is reasonable, as seven horsemen could easily share the same chariot.

So we can conclude that if one believes the Bible is not written entirely by God and reads something at face value like the above passages without the help of the Spirit teaching them, then one is only going to see errors in God's Word where none really exist.

1 Thessalonians 2:13

"For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe."​


B. Supposed Contradiction #2.


Does Matthew 26:17 contradict the timing of the Passover and the First Day of Unleavened Bread?

Matthew 26:17 says,

“Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?”

Yet, Leviticus 23:5-6 says,

5 “In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover.
6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.”

Is this a contradiction?

No, it is not.

First, nowhere does Leviticus 23:4-6 actually use the words "first" or the "first day" of unleavened bread. It merely says it is the (or "a") feast of unleavened bread.

Second, Matthew 26:17 calls the first day of unleavened bread as the Passover. Luke 22:1 says,
"Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover." Unleavened bread was to be eaten on the Passover Day, which began at the evening of the 14th (Gentile Tuesday night, Jewish 4th Day of the Week).

"Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses:" (Exodus 12:15).

The first day is the Passover and it is a holy convocation (like a Sabbath).

"In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at even, ye shall eat unleavened bread, until the one and twentieth day of the month at even." (Exodus 12:18).

See source:
The Passover is a Feast and a Holy Convocation.
(Note: I do not believe everything this author believes. I do not think the OT Passover is still in effect. I believe we are to observe the Lord's supper now. I merely believe his explanations on resolving what many believe to be a contradiction in the Bible in regards to the Passover).

C. Supposed Contradiction #3.

Is the KJV wrong for having two different events happening for Jesus on the sixth hour? John 19:14 says the sixth hour is when Pilate mocks Jesus before a crowd. Yet, on the sixth hour, Scripture says darkness came upon the land. So is this a contradiction? No. This is not a contradiction. There are two different clocks here. Christ’s clock or hours; And the normal reckoning of hours within a calendar day.


#1. Christ’s 1st hour. This the 1st hour of when Christ is betrayed into the hands of sinners

(Christ’s 1st hour: See Matthew 26:45). This is Christ’s hour because Christ’s says elsewhere, “My hour has not yet come.” (John 2:4).

#2. Early the next morning, Jesus is judged by Pilate (a Roman) early in the morning.

#3. Jesus is then whipped and mocked.

#4. Christ’s 6th hour. This is after six hours have past from the previous night of the 1st hour of when Jesus was betrayed into the hands of sinners (Matthew 26:45): Pilate sets Jesus before a Jewish audience and says to them, “Behold your king!” (Christ’s 6th hour: See John 19:14).

#5. Then at 9:00AM (3rd hour of the Day): Jesus is crucified.

#6. Darkness within the sky comes upon the land at 12:00PM (6th hour of the Day).

#7. Then at 3:00PM (9th hour of the Day) Jesus dies and He becomes our Passover Lamb, Christ is sacrificed for us (man).​
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

Rubiks

proud libtard
Aug 14, 2012
4,293
2,259
United States
✟137,866.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
The King James Bible teaches Arianism. Here is John 3:16

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

Here is the New Revised Standard Version:

For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who believes in him may not perish but may have eternal life.
 
Upvote 0

GingerBeer

Cool and refreshing with a kick!
Mar 26, 2017
3,511
1,348
Australia
✟119,825.00
Country
Australia
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
Faith comes by hearing and hearing the Word of God (Romans 10:17). The written Word of God testifies of Jesus Christ (John 5:39). So when you say you do not trust the Bible for your salvation, then you are seeking out another way to Jesus. It is only the Jesus of the Bible that we can gain salvation. Jesus is never separate from God's Word. They breath in harmony together as one. It's why Jesus tells us to to abide in Him and His words. It's why Jesus quotes Scripture many times as an authority of God.
Jesus is the Word but the Word is not the bible. The bible is holy scripture. Word is spoken, scripture is written. If you take a careful look at 2Tim 3:16 inspiration is attributed to holy scripture but deity is not attributed to holy scripture nevertheless deity is attributed to the Word.
John 1:1-3 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being.​
The bible did not create all things but Jesus did.
Genesis 1:1 In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.​
And Jesus tells Christians to abide in him not to abide in the bible
John 15:4-7 "Abide in Me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself unless it abides in the vine, so neither can you unless you abide in Me. 5 "I am the vine, you are the branches; he who abides in Me and I in him, he bears much fruit, for apart from Me you can do nothing. 6 "If anyone does not abide in Me, he is thrown away as a branch and dries up; and they gather them, and cast them into the fire and they are burned. 7 "If you abide in Me, and My words abide in you, ask whatever you wish, and it will be done for you.​
though the bible is of great value as 2Tim 3:16 says.
2 Timothy 3:14-17 You, however, continue in the things you have learned and become convinced of, knowing from whom you have learned them, 15 and that from childhood you have known the sacred writings which are able to give you the wisdom that leads to salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. 16 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; 17 so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work.​
 
  • Like
Reactions: pescador
Upvote 0

brinny

everlovin' shiner of light in dark places
Site Supporter
Mar 23, 2004
248,794
114,491
✟1,343,306.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Politics
US-Constitution
The King James Bible teaches Arianism. Here is John 3:16

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

Here is the New Revised Standard Version:

For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who believes in him may not perish but may have eternal life.

Would you care to elaborate on "Arianism"?

Getting back to what you specifically objected to, and that is the word "begotten":

Why is it that you object to it?
What does "begotten" mean?
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

pescador

Wise old man
Site Supporter
Nov 29, 2011
8,530
4,776
✟498,844.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Democrat
The King James Bible teaches Arianism. Here is John 3:16

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

Here is the New Revised Standard Version:

For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who believes in him may not perish but may have eternal life.

Simply comparing one verse from two different translations doesn't prove a thing.
 
Upvote 0

Rubiks

proud libtard
Aug 14, 2012
4,293
2,259
United States
✟137,866.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
Would you care to elaborate on "Arianism"?

Getting back to what you specifically objected to, and that is the word "begotten":

Why is it that you object to it?
What does "begotten" mean?

Here is Meriam-Webster's definition of beget: Definition of BEGET

1 : to procreate as the father : sire

  • He died without begetting an heir.
2 : to produce especially as an effect or outgrowth
  • Violence only begets more violence.
 
Upvote 0

brinny

everlovin' shiner of light in dark places
Site Supporter
Mar 23, 2004
248,794
114,491
✟1,343,306.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Politics
US-Constitution
Here is Meriam-Webster's definition of beget: Definition of BEGET

1 : to procreate as the father : sire

  • He died without begetting an heir.
2 : to produce especially as an effect or outgrowth
  • Violence only begets more violence.

Anything else? I asked you 2 other questions. Would you care to answer them.

In the meantime i have another question for you:

How did Jesus the Christ come into the world as promised in John Chapter 3 verse 16?
 
Upvote 0

pescador

Wise old man
Site Supporter
Nov 29, 2011
8,530
4,776
✟498,844.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Democrat
Would you care to elaborate on "Arianism"?

Getting back to what you specifically objected to, and that is the word "begotten":

Why is it that you object to it?
What does "begotten" mean?

Here is what the translators of the New English Translation wrote...

"Although the word is often translated "only begotten" such a translation is misleading, since in English it appears to express a metaphysical relationship. The word in Greek was used of an only child(a son or a daughter). It was also used of something unique (only one of its kind) such as the mythological Phoenix. From here it passes easily to a description of Isaac, who was not Abraham's only son but was one-of-a-kind because he was the child of the promise. Thus the word means "one-of-a-kind" and is reserved for Jesus in the Johannine literature of the NT. While all Christians are children of God, Jesus is God's son in a unique, one-of-a kind sense."
 
Upvote 0

brinny

everlovin' shiner of light in dark places
Site Supporter
Mar 23, 2004
248,794
114,491
✟1,343,306.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Politics
US-Constitution
Here is what the translators of the New English Translation wrote...

"Although the word is often translated "only begotten" such a translation is misleading, since in English it appears to express a metaphysical relationship. The word in Greek was used of an only child(a son or a daughter). It was also used of something unique (only one of its kind) such as the mythological Phoenix. From here it passes easily to a description of Isaac, who was not Abraham's only son but was one-of-a-kind because he was the child of the promise. Thus the word means "one-of-a-kind" and is reserved for Jesus in the Johannine literature of the NT. While all Christians are children of God, Jesus is God's son in a unique, one-of-a kind sense."

Thank you.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Dale

Senior Veteran
Site Supporter
Apr 14, 2003
7,180
1,228
71
Sebring, FL
✟665,848.00
Faith
Protestant
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Democrat
Its not completely about what came 1st, I would absolutely in your case consider; the KJV Bible was chosen & proved to have more of an impact. Is there truly a question if it was God's will or not?
&
There are currently no laws against using the Geneva Bible within my knowledge, Yet, Still the KJV is highly favored.
- 1 Corinthians 2:13 (KJV)

You say that the KJV is "highly favored." I go to a very conservative non-denominational church and I haven't noticed anyone using the King James Version. The pastor doesn't and no one else seems to, either.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums