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The oldest manuscripts are not the most reliable. Just because something is older does not make it more reliable. That is a flawed assumption. Time does not make something automatically more trust worthy. The devil existed in the Garden and corrupted God's Word even back in the beginning of time. The way to test something is not by Historical Science but it is by Observational Science.
For we do not have a time machine to confirm what is in the past. We can only go by what we see today by doing a fruits test on the two different vines (i.e. the Textus Receptus vs. the Critical Text).
However, on the other hand, if you want Historical Science, here ya go:
A Trail of Evidence:
We find mention of 1 John 5:7, from about 200 AD through the 1500s. Here is a useful timeline of references to this verse:
200 AD Tertullian wrote "which three are one" based on the verse in his Against Praxeas, chapter 25.
I didn't have much time last night but I googled the first on on your list, and it appears Tertullian was talking about John 10:30, not 1 John 5:7. Yes, he uses the words "these three are one" but it's not a quote. Those words are part of a standard definition of the Trinity. The full quote is:
"Thus the connection of the Father in the Son, and of the Son in the Paraclete, produces three coherent Persons, who are yet distinct One from Another. These three are one [thing], not one [Person], as it is said, 'I and my Father are One,' in respect of unity of substance not singularity of number."
So this "these three are one" isn't a direct quote of anything, unlike when he says, "as it is said, 'I and my Father are One".
See also
http://www.equip.org/article/is-your-modern-translation-corrupt/
The Majority Text and the Original Text: Are They Identical?
Please note, I am not arguing against the use of the KJV, my Gran used it all her life as her English translation (she primarily used a Gaelic Bible as that was her first language) and she was a faithful, godly woman, one of my enduring memories of her is a deep conversation when she told me how important it was "to be walking with the Lord", and encouraged me to read some of the Bible every day, and do what it says.
I believe that whether I use the NIV (which I do) or the KJV, or ESV, NLT - I will come to an understanding of what God has done to save me, and come to "proper" Christian doctrine. Which is why seeing all this stuff online that verges on ESV Only disturbed me. For me it's important to have a Bible that is readable, lots in the KJV isn't, and could lead to serious misunderstanding.
Exodus 32:14 - God planned evil?
And the Lord repented of the evil which he thought to do unto his people. (KJV)
Then the Lord relented and did not bring on his people the disaster he had threatened. (NIV)
And the Lord repented of the evil which he thought to do unto his people. (KJV)
Then the Lord relented and did not bring on his people the disaster he had threatened. (NIV)
So even reading the KJV, you need to have an understanding of the English of the time!
Job 15:26-27 - what does this mean?
He runneth upon him, even on his neck, upon the thick bosses of his bucklers: Because he covereth his face with his fatness, and maketh collops of fat on his flanks.
He runneth upon him, even on his neck, upon the thick bosses of his bucklers: Because he covereth his face with his fatness, and maketh collops of fat on his flanks.
2 Cor 6:11-13 - again, what does this mean?
O ye Corinthians, our mouth is open unto you, our heart is enlarged. Ye are not straitened in us, but ye are straitened in your own bowels. Now for a recompence in the same, (I speak as unto my children,) be ye also enlarged.
O ye Corinthians, our mouth is open unto you, our heart is enlarged. Ye are not straitened in us, but ye are straitened in your own bowels. Now for a recompence in the same, (I speak as unto my children,) be ye also enlarged.
I do understand these, but only because I was able to look them up in my Bible. So if I have to turn to the NIV to see what that means, am I not better using the one I understand in the first place? By the way, in case you think I am picking on the KJV, the ESV has some of the same problems with bad English and poor translation in places.
Luke 7:47
Therefore I tell you, her sins, which are many, are forgiven—for she loved much. (ESV)
Therefore I tell you, her sins, which are many, are forgiven—for she loved much. (ESV)
She was forgiven because she loved much? Isn't that questionable theology? The NIV is far better, "Therefore, I tell you, her many sins have been forgiven—as her great love has shown."
Matthew 23:32
Fill up, then, the measure of your fathers.
Fill up, then, the measure of your fathers.
This is nonsense in English. It's an idiom which the NIV gets right, "complete what your ancestors started!"
Amos 4:6
I gave you cleanness of teeth in all your cities.
This is another idiom, this time for having nothing to eat, not a dental blessing from on high! And the ESV totally misses it. It might be a literal translation, but the reader is left scratching their head! The NIV is far clearer, "I gave you empty stomachs in every city." So there are things in the ESV too, which would stop me in my tracks and have me thinking, "huh?". I gave you cleanness of teeth in all your cities.
Which brings me back to my OP, exclusive use of one translation is a bad thing. The NIV doesn't get it right all the time either, which is why for study I do compare other translations.
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