This shows us how much you really know. There is yet a third scripture you left out: 2 Thes. 2. And in this scripture, the "departing" or gathering is the one restraining or holding back the man of sin being "taken out of the way." Note carefully, the departing (of the church) is shown to come before the man of sin is revealed. No wonder you did not want to mention this scripture.
2 Thessalonians 2:1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.
Let's ask ourselves some questions based on what the text indicates.
for that day shall not come
What day shall not come? the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him. That day, IOW the rapture.
Verse 3 is then meaning this----Let no man deceive you by any means: for the rapture shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
Seriously, does it make good sense that the rapture and the falling away are referring to the exact same event? Which would basically make verse 3 meaning the following then----Let no man deceive you by any means: for the rapture shall not come, except there come a rapture first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition
Come on now, Paul was a very educated man, not to mention, he was writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. Does anyone actually believe they could construct a sentence this lame, where the sentence is basically saying---Let no man deceive you by any means: for the rapture shall not come, except there come a rapture first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition?
A 5th grader would likely have better writing skills than that. No reasonable person would say---for the rapture shall not come, except there come a rapture first---but that's exactly what it would be saying if that day and the falling away are meaning the same event. The text clearly tells us that the rapture cannot occur until there is a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition.
And not that the rapture and the falling away are the same event. That conclusion renders that verse nonsensical, as I have illustrated above.