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We are justified to God by faith,
True, but how do you show your faith?
James says,
"Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works." (James 2:18).
You said:We are justified to God by faith, not works.
Paul says this true.
"For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast." (Ephesians 2:8-9).
"For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God." (Romans 4:2).
"Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works," (Romans 4:6).
James says this is not true.
"Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only." (James 2:10).
"Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?"
(James 2:21).
"Likewise also was not Rahab the harlot justified by works, when she had received the messengers, and had sent them out another way?" (James 2:25).
So either we have a contradiction in the Bible or there is an explanation. For one, there is no mention in the Bible about how we are justified before men by our works. Romans 4:2 does not say that. It is talking about glorying or boasting in regards to our works. There is no glorying or boasting in our works because we all have sinned and because all good that we do is ultimately the Lord working in us. But that does not mean we are not to walk uprightly after we are saved by God's grace. Otherwise, 2 Corinthians 7:1 and a ton of other verses would be non-sense or gibberish.
The way to reconcile Paul vs. James statements is they are talking from two different perspectives. Granted, we come to different conclusions as to what those reasons are.
Paul was talking about "Initial Salvation" in Ephesians 2:8-9 because Ephesians 2:1 says we have been quickened by Jesus Christ and verse 18 says that through Jesus we have access by one Spirit unto the Father. So this is talking about "Initial Salvation" and not "Continued Salvation."
We also see in Romans 4:9-12 argue against "Circumcision Salvationism" as a means of justification and that we are justified by faith in God.
"But neither Titus, who was with me, being a Greek, was compelled to be circumcised." (Galatians 2:3).
"...if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing." (Galatians 5:2).
Paul is talking about "Initial Salvation." For Paul says if we believe on God who raised up Jesus from the dead, etc.
"But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead; Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification. (Romans 4:24-25).
A person first comes to God by believing in Jesus and what He has done for us with His death and resurrection. So Paul here is not talking about Sanctification or Continued Salvation. Paul is talking about "Initial Salvation." Paul is talking about the entrance into God's Kingdom and how we initially get right wth God. This makes sense even more in light of what James says.
James says we are justified by works. But this would be AFTER we are saved by God's grace.
"...God; ... will render to every man according to his deeds: To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life: But unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath, Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;" (Romans 2:5-9).
In James 2, he is talking about respect of persons and how that breaks the Royal Law of Love that still applies to us today. James drives home the point even more by saying that if you have respect of persons, you break all of God's laws and you will have a faith without works that is dead. So James is talking about a the next step or phase in the salvation process. James is not talking about having a belief alone so as to be saved and he is not talking about being justified before men. James 2 does not even hint at such a thing. You have to make that kind of stuff up in order for James 2 to say that.
You said:And, it is written that without faith it is impossible to please God (Hebrews 11:6),
Yes, a Christian first BELIEVES by faith in Jesus and trusts in Him as their Savior, and THEN... it leads to action and or works and holiness. This is what we see in all of Hebrews 11. Unless you want to continue to focus a laser beam on certain verses out of their context or something.
You said:and that by the obedience of One (Jesus Christ) we are made righteous. (Romans 5:19)
It's talking about Initial Salvation.
"By whom also we have access by faith into this grace..." (Romans 5:2).
Access is kind of like when you gain entry to something.
I gained access to the computer or I accessed the room through the main door.
Romans 6:1-2 says,
"What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound? God forbid."
Jason0047 said:There is no such thing as being justified by works before man.
You said:Of course there is. We cannot see what is in another person's heart, only God can. Our "good works" (done in faith) should shine before men so that others can see them and glorify God.
No. The word "Justified" means to be declared judicially righteous. Man cannot declare us judicially righteous by our good deeds because he may look up our past records of when we were an unbeliever. Also, any righteousness done in the present does not make us saved before men. Justification is something that deals with salvation exclusively with God.
Romans 5:9 says,
"Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him."
But how does one make sure the blood of Jesus is applied to their life?
By walking in the light as Christ as in the light.
"But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin." (1 John 1:7).
Meaning, one has to walk in Christ's good ways to have the blood of Jesus applied to their life.
You said:I never said our good works done in faith glorify us. They bring glory to God. We do not boast in them or seek praise and honour for ourselves. Good works done in faith, do, however, show others that we are living out the faith we say we have, as no person can see our hearts, only God can.
When I said, "All our works is God doing the good work through us and this glorifies God and not men."; It is the prove the point to you that Romans 4:2 is not talking about being justified by works before men but it is talking about glorying or boasting. I was not saying that you believe that our faith glorifies us. I was merely telling you what Romans 4:2 says; And it says,
"For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God." (Romans 4:2).
I see nothing in Romans 4 about how we are justified by our works before men vs. not before God.
Yes, we cannot boast about our works before God because we have sinned in our life and we need a Savior. But that does not mean we cannot walk uprightly after we are saved by God's grace.
You said:Correct. Nor can we save ourselves. Only Christ saves.
While Christ provided salvation as a gift, and while we are given a new heart with new desires and while the Lord does the good work in us, we do have to cooperate with God. A woman who is rescued from off a cliff by a man who pulled her up to safety cannot claim that she saved herself if she reached to grab on to his hand so that he could pull her up.
You said:As Scripture says, our works do not save us. Our works are a witness and a testament before men that the faith we say we have is genuine and living and not "dead." People cannot see the heart as God can.
Actually, Jesus says we can know false prophets by their fruit (Matthew 7:15-16).
You said:Yes, our works bring glory to God, not ourselves, and I never said otherwise.
Again, that was not the point I was trying to make. I was trying to say that Romans 4:2 is talking about boasting and or glorying in one's works. It is not talking about being justified before men by our works.
You said:Yes, there are times we are not to "let our left hand know what our right hand is doing." The point is that we dare not glorify ourselves and we do not glory in our works as though they earn us our salvation. They do not. Salvation is a gift, it is by grace, through faith, not of works, lest any man should boast. We boast in the Lord, not ourselves.
But how can one do this if they are promoting the idea that we can sin and still be saved?
For will not telling others that salvation is nothing in they do lead them into treating God's grace as a license to sin on some level? For example: If people found out there was no more punishment or fines for drinking and driving, what do you think is going to happen? More people are going to drink and drive and they will become cold and uncaring towards others on the road about their sin.
You said:But human nature is such that it seems right to the "natural man" that we earn salvation in some way. This is why the cross is an "offense." Where is boasting? It is excluded.
Again, nowhere is there boasting in the Soteriology I have gathered from the Scriptures. Men accept Jesus as their Savior and the gospel without any works and then the Lord does the good work within them. So there is no boasting. I would warn believers if they tried to boast in themselves. So you do not know what you are talking about or you are trying to falsely label what I actually believe the Scriptures say.
Now, I do see a problem with the "believe only in Jesus to be saved belief", because if anything, one could boast that they can sin and still be saved on some level (Which is a plan of salvation God cannot agree with because He is holy). God can no more agree with a plan of salvation to let men sin than for pouring rain to not be wet. It would be a violation of God's goodness to do that. God's grace is not a license to sin. Please see Jude 1:4 NIV.
You said:Paul is writing about salvation being for both the Jew (the circumcision) and the Gentile (the uncircumcision). Both are saved by faith on the Son, and are "one" in Christ Jesus. Exactly. There were Jews coming in and teaching Gentile believers that faith in Christ's finished work and sacrifice was not enough. These Jews added circumcision as a requirement for salvation. Adding even one "work" to Christ's finished work, which is by grace, through faith, cancels grace and Christ indeed becomes of no effect and profits those who teach a works based salvation nothing. It's either grace or it's works, it cannot be both.
I agree that "Initial Salvation" or "Ultimate Salvation" is by God's grace and NOT of works. For "Initial Salvation is the context of Ephesians 2 and Romans 4. Nowhere does Ephesians 2 and Romans 4 say you can chop people's heads off with an axe and still be saved while doing so. Nowhere does Ephesians 2 and Romans 4 say that we can commit adultery and still be saved. On the contrary, there are many other Scriptures that say that sin can separate a believer from God still under the New Covenant.
"He that despised Moses' law died without mercy under two or three witnesses: Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?" (Hebrews 10:28-29).
For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins," (Hebrews 10:26).
You said:These works, done in faith, as a result of Christ working in us and leading us, do not happen until we are born again, having been saved, receiving the Holy Spirit. The only requirement for salvation is what Christ has done. If the blood of Christ is not enough, our "right living" certainly is not.
Sorry. The following does not sound like what you are saying,
"His lord said unto him, Well done, thou good and faithful servant: thou hast been faithful over a few things, I will make thee ruler over many things: enter thou into the joy of thy lord." (Matthew 25:21).
"But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin." (1 John 1:7).
"And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments. He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. But whoso keepeth his word, in him verily is the love of God perfected: hereby know we that we are in him. He that saith he abideth in him ought himself also so to walk, even as he walked." (1 John 2:3-6).
"In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother." (1 John 3:10).
You said:Again, let us beware, lest we "trample the Son of God underfoot" and consider the blood of the covenant an "unclean thing."
Again, this is in context to willfully sinning after we received the knowledge of the truth. Unbelievers do not receive the knowledge of the truth. Also, the context is drawing back in the faith.
"Now the just shall live by faith: but if any man draw back, my soul shall have no pleasure in him." (Hebrews 10:38). They do this by willfully sinning.
"Take heed, brethren, lest there be in any of you an evil heart of unbelief, in departing from the living God. But exhort one another daily, while it is called To day; lest any of you be hardened through the deceitfulness of sin. (Hebrews 3:12-13).
You said:Exactly. What do you think Jesus is revealing in those Scriptures? That is how high God's righteous standard is, absolute perfection in thought, word and deed, from birth to death. No one has achieved that but Christ. And as it is written, there is no longer any condemnation for those in Christ Jesus.
No. Paul's point in Galatians 5:2 was not about adding works later for salvation as being wrong. Circumcision is a part of the commands of the Old Testament and not the New Testament. Paul essentially says that those who break the moral law in Galatians 5:19-21 will not inherit the Kingdom of God,
"Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness, Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies, Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told you in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God." (Galatians 5:19-21).
You said:You may want to read Galatians 5 again. I posted it earlier. Paul specifically condemns the idea that we begin in the Spirit and are then perfected by the flesh.
No. You need to read Galatians 5 again.
It says,
"they that are Christ's have crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts." (Galatians 5:24).
But it appears by what you said, that you really do not believe that. For do you really believe that they that are Christ's have crucified the affections and lusts? By what you said so far, I don't see how that is possible.
"For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death."
(Romans 8:2).
How many laws are in Romans 8:2?
There are two.
Law #1. - The Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus.
Law #2. - The Law of Sin and Death.
Keeping Law #1 makes us free from Law #2.
See Romans 8:2.
Also, Romans 8:3 says,
"For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:" (Romans 8:3).
Which Law did Jesus condemn?
(a) All Law?
(b) Old Covenant Law?
(c) New Covenant Law?
The only law that existed before Christ came was Old Covenant Law. The New Covenant commands were still being given by Jesus and His followers with the NT Scriptures. If Jesus and His followers condemned the idea of following God's commands, they would have not given any new commands for us under the New Testament. But there are actually more commands in the New Testament than the Old Testament and many of them ARE attached with consequences to one's soul in the after life if they disobey them and do not repent. Note: When I say "repent," I am talking about "Biblical Repentance" whereby someone seeks forgiveness with God by way of prayer and they forsake their sin.
Also, the righteousness of the Law is to be fulfilled in us, as well.
For Romans 8:4 says,
"That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit."
What is the righteousness of the Law that is to be fulfilled?
Romans 13:8-10 gives us a clue. It says that if we love our neighbor we will not covet, steal, murder, etc. This is the "righteousness of the Law." It is the Moral Law. Ceremonial Laws from the Old Covenant like the Saturday Sabbath, circumcision, the dietary laws, animal sacrifices, etc. have been abrogated when Christ died upon the cross. Only God's Eternal Moral Laws (Since after the Fall of Adam) still remain.
Then there is Romans 8:5. It says,
"For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit." (Romans 8:5).
Your belief says that you can sin and still be saved. Yet, Romans 8:5 says they that are of the flesh do mind the things of the flesh. The things of the flesh is sin. The things that are of the Spirit are the fruits of the Spirit like love, joy, peace, etc. This is the righteousness of God after we are forgiven of our sins by Jesus when we accepted Him as our Savior.
You said:No one has done enough good or stopped doing enough evil to be saved, so why should anyone believe we must do enough good or stop doing enough evil to stay saved? We have not earned salvation by our works and we do not keep it by our works. If that were the case, not one single person has been or ever will, be saved. And if it were possible to be saved by works, then we have no need of a Savior.
Jesus says,
"Because strait is the gate, and narrow is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it." (Matthew 7:14).
Also, it would be turning God's grace into a license to sin or do evil.
Morally, it is not correct and you know it.
For would not God have to agree with your idea that you can sin and still be saved?
Can God agree with sin?
Surely not.
You said:We "rest" in Christ and His once and for all and all sufficient sacrifice for sin.
I am sorry. That is not how it works. Belief alone in Jesus while ignoring sin will not work out at all.
Jesus says to certain believers to depart from Him because they worked iniquity or sin.
You said:Again, Galatians 5 is clear. There is no such thing a being saved by grace and then earning/keeping that salvation by works.
Actually, Galatians 5 proves that we are saved by God's grace and then we continue to keep our salvation by our good deeds because it says that the unrighteous will not inherit the Kingdom of God and lists actual specific sins that you cannot do.
John also provides a similar list in Revelation 21:8 but he says that these sins will cause a person to be cast into the Lake of Fire. In fact, John says all liars will have their part in the Lake of Fire. John mentions nothing about a group of believers who can be liars and miss out on the Lake of Fire. Revelation 21:8 says ALL liars will have their part in the Lake of Fire.
You said:I've addressed James, repeatedly. James is written to already saved believers to chastise and correct them in their conduct.
How can a dead faith save anyone?
Can a demon belief save?
James says very clearly says,
"Wherefore lay apart all filthiness and superfluity of naughtiness, and receive with meekness the engrafted word, which is able to save your souls." (James 1:21).
Jason0047 said:"They profess that they know God; but in works they deny him, being abominable, and disobedient, and unto every good work reprobate." (Titus 1:16).
You said:Where does it say they will lose salvation? If a child is disobedient toward their parents, do they stop being their parent's child? It is written that God chastises His children, not that he damns them to hell for all eternity.
So a person can be saved and deny God? Okay. That does not sound like faith in God to me.
Also, Jude 1:4 ties in denying God by a lack of works by saying,
"For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ."
It should be no surprise to you that Scripture says these things.
For Jesus Himself said,
"And why call ye me, Lord, Lord, and do not the things which I say?" (Luke 6:46).
1 Timothy 6:3-4 says,
"If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness; He is proud, knowing nothing..."
James 4:6 says,
"God resisteth the proud, but giveth grace unto the humble."
You said:Indeed? So, where does it say he is damned for all eternity, having lost his salvation and been disowned and forsaken by God?
"If any man love not the Lord Jesus Christ, let him be Anathema Maranatha."
Anathema means accursed.
So when Jesus says if you love me, keep my commandments He is telling us how we are to love Him. Then if we are to tie in what Paul says about not loving Jesus, he says those who do not love Jesus are accursed. Jesus says if you love me, keep my commandments. That is how we are to love Jesus. Also, how can one enter God's Kingdom if they hate God and do not love Jesus. It makes no sense.
You said:Grace, exactly. "God have mercy on me a sinner!" We have nothing to boast in, only the Lord. All our "righteous deeds" are as "filthy rags."
So you are saying that sinning is the humble position? That doing good is the proud position? Indeed it is true that OUR righteous deeds are filthy rags but that is not the kind of works a believer does. A believer allows Jesus or God to do the good work within their lives. God flows through them. For only God alone is good. All good a believer does is from God. So there is no "our righteous deeds" if we submit to God in what He wants to work through our life. There is no boasting if it is God who works in us.
Oh, and the Parable of the Tax Collector and the Pharisee is not a case for a sin and still be saved gospel or belief. Yes, God's grace and mercy is there for us if we honestly stumble into sin and we confess it. But the problem here is that the Pharisee did not cry out unto God seeking forgiveness with God like the Tax Collector did. The Pharisee also should have tried and helped the Tax Collector to overcome his sin by praying for him and by showing him those Scriptures that can help him to stop sinning. But he didn't do that.
I mean, why do you think Jesus condemned the Pharisees?
Was it because they did not believe in a sin and still be saved belief?
No, of course not.
Jesus condemned the Pharisees because they ignored the weightier matters of the Law like justice, faith, mercy and love (See Matthew 23:23 cf. Luke 11:42).
You said:What does it mean to "obey" Him? It is written that only those who do "the will of the Father" will be saved. What does Jesus tell us the "will of the Father is?"
"God's will is for you to be holy," (1 Thessalonians 4:3) (NLT).
"For this is the will of God, even your sanctification,"(1 Thessalonians 4:3) (KJV).
You said:Who is Holy, but God? Who is righteous apart from Him? No one.
You miss the point of Hebrews 12:14.
It says follow AFTER holiness, of which no man shall see the Lord.
So it appears you simply do not like what this verse says.
Oh, and yes. All holiness and righteousness is by God.
As I said before, any good a true believer does is by the power of the Lord working in them.
You said:We love because He first loved us.
How can one say they love God and yet also sin and be unfaithful against Him?
Does such a concept work in the real world?
Can men expect their spouse to love them if they are unfaithful with them?
Surely not.
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