What errors do you think exist within the KJV?

Hieronymus

Well-Known Member
Jan 12, 2016
8,427
2,998
52
the Hague NL
✟69,862.00
Country
Netherlands
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
I have read and studied the text.
Psalms 82
1 God has taken his place in the divine council;
in the midst of the gods he holds judgment:
2 “How long will you judge unjustly
and show partiality to the wicked? Selah
3 Give justice to the weak and the fatherless;
maintain the right of the afflicted and the destitute.
4 Rescue the weak and the needy;
deliver them from the hand of the wicked.”
5 They have neither knowledge nor understanding,
they walk about in darkness;
all the foundations of the earth are shaken.
6 I said, “You are gods,
sons of the Most High, all of you;
7 nevertheless, like men you shall die,
and fall like any prince.
8 Arise, O God, judge the earth;
for you shall inherit all the nations!
(ESV)

KJV: 1 God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.

Council, congregation, it's the same.
 
Upvote 0

DennisTate

Newbie
Site Supporter
Mar 31, 2012
10,742
1,664
Nova Scotia, Canada
Visit site
✟379,864.00
Country
Canada
Faith
Messianic
Marital Status
Married
Politics
CA-Conservatives
What errors do you think exist within the KJV?

Please see my other CF thread here on answers to various supposed contradictions in the KJV.
I have a few more answers to supposed contradictions for the KJV I would like to add later.


Anyways, may God bless you;
And may you please be well.

For one..... the Apostle Paul was human.......
he was NOT the Messiah and if he had had any idea that the time would come when
many of his followers would attempt to use his words to negate important parts of the Sermon on the Mount... I am sure he would have written his letters / epistles differently.

O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?
 
Upvote 0

jalvarez4Jesus

Active Member
Aug 30, 2014
62
16
Atwood
Visit site
✟8,960.00
Country
United States
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Constitution
Psalms 82
1 God has taken his place in the divine council;
in the midst of the gods he holds judgment:
2 “How long will you judge unjustly
and show partiality to the wicked? Selah
3 Give justice to the weak and the fatherless;
maintain the right of the afflicted and the destitute.
4 Rescue the weak and the needy;
deliver them from the hand of the wicked.”
5 They have neither knowledge nor understanding,
they walk about in darkness;
all the foundations of the earth are shaken.
6 I said, “You are gods,
sons of the Most High, all of you;
7 nevertheless, like men you shall die,
and fall like any prince.
8 Arise, O God, judge the earth;
for you shall inherit all the nations!
(ESV)

KJV: 1 God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.

Council, congregation, it's the same.
No, a congregation is not a council. A church is a congregation. A church is not a council.
 
Upvote 0

Hieronymus

Well-Known Member
Jan 12, 2016
8,427
2,998
52
the Hague NL
✟69,862.00
Country
Netherlands
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
No, a congregation is not a council. A church is a congregation. A church is not a council.
A congregation of gods is not a church.
Reading Psalms 82 things become clearer.

(edited)
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

Neal of Zebulun

Active Member
Oct 21, 2017
326
132
34
Texas
✟28,991.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.
2:1 Thus the heavens and the earth were finished, and all the host of them.

which is it? plural or singular? because in the hebrew these words are exactly the same and in the same context.
That's a good catch, I never noticed that before. Had you been on the KJV translating team and pointed that out, they probably would have settled on either the singular or plural, but not both. We can imagine how difficult it was to make all these words as self consistent as possible in the English without a computer!

To answer your question, I think of שמים ("heavens") as an intensive plural, like how we say "the stars" but we really mean the entire night sky. I believe it's related to שם, a common word meaning "name," as in a designation, or mark. There is another related word that is used adverbally to mean "there," as in a definite location, or spot. We are told that the stars are for signs in Genesis 1:14. So I literally think of שמים as meaning "marks" in the sky. But this is perhaps, controversial.

There is an argument that it might be a "dual-plural" like how we say "scissors," even though we mean the one object. The vowel points would seem to indicate this meaning. So "two heavens." Likewise we see the same thing in the Hebrew for "water." Maybe a reference to when Yahweh divided the waters from the waters in Genesis 1:6?
 
Upvote 0

tamedlion

Active Member
Aug 24, 2006
41
7
62
✟15,402.00
Faith
Christian
Outside the number of horsemen David acquired (either 700 KJV, 1700 Tanakh/Septuigent/NASB, or 7000 NIV) when comparing the same verse in 2 Samuel 8:4, the most disturbing one I found was Isaiah 63:11

NKJV
Then he remembered the days of old,
Moses and his people, saying:
“Where is He who brought them up out of the sea
With the shepherd of His flock?
Where is He who put His Holy Spirit within them,

KJV has the same misleading wording.

NASB
Then His people remembered the days of old, of Moses.
Where is He who brought them up out of the sea with the shepherds of His flock? Where is He who put His Holy Spirit in the midst of them,

The cloud of smoke and the pillar of fire were not inside them, but in the midst of them.
1Co 10:1,2 Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea;

They were baptized in the cloud (the Holy Spirit) and in the sea (Baptism in water). When you get baptized, spiritually it gets in you.
 
Upvote 0

Theo Book

Active Member
Site Supporter
Apr 25, 2016
216
76
89
Central Florida
✟59,258.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
What errors do you think exist within the KJV?

Please see my other CF thread here on answers to various supposed contradictions in the KJV.
I have a few more answers to supposed contradictions for the KJV I would like to add later.


Anyways, may God bless you;
And may you please be well.

I think Micah 5:2 is misunderstood because it is not realized by the translators, that the reference is to the death of Jesus.

Look at Micah 5:2 and examine a couple of items - But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting. (Micah 5:2)

First of all, it shows that Jesus is not pre-existent "with the Father" because the Father says "He (Messiah) shall come forth unto me," therefore He is not with Him at the time of the writing of Micah.

Second, "His exodoi were from the beginning, even from eternity.

The word translated "Eternity" is also used to reference old landmarks, aged mountains, previous civilizations, ancient things, none of which were in eternity." So it might be misleading to interpret it that way, and most certainly is wrong to translate it that way. It is a reference to the fact everything about Messiah is found in ancient prophecies, which is also how Jesus existed before Abraham, "Before Abraham was I am" is mistranslated, because the truth is, "Before Abraham became, I was." "Eimi is translated "was" in several references when justified by the the other grammar in the reference material; i.e., "Knew (past tense) I was an austere man," for one example.

And the word translated "goings forth" in Micah is the plural form of the exodus; which is translated "decease" in the new testament, as in Luke 9:28-31-

"And it came to pass about an eight days after these sayings, he took Peter and John and James, and went up into a mountain to pray. 29 And as he prayed, the fashion of his countenance was altered, and his raiment was white and glistering. 30 And, behold, there talked with him two men, which were Moses and Elias:31 Who appeared in glory, and spake of his (exodon) decease which he should accomplish at Jerusalem."

I think this is a much more probable focus of Micah's reference, than any "Goings forth from eternity," since the entire old testament is about "concerning" Christ.

Luke 24:44-46 "And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me. 45 Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures, 46 And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:"

Peter applied the same terminology to his own approaching "decease."
Moreover I will endeavour that ye may be able after my decease to have these things always in remembrance."(II Pet 1:15)

John 17:5 is another instance of mistranslating the Greek to provide a statement that is not in the original; i.e. "And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world {was}."(John 17:5)

That word "WAS" is not provided by the Greek. It is provided by doctrines and creeds found nowhere in scripture.

"Before the world" should be understood the same way as "Peter stood before the gate..." "And when she knew Peter's voice, she opened not the gate for gladness, but ran in, and told how Peter stood before the gate."(Acts 12:14))

The glory Jesus had with the Father was in prophecy, and promise, that he would be given a name above every name, and would be above princes and authorities, and would be extolled and be very high - In Prophecy.
 
Upvote 0

Bible Highlighter

Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
Site Supporter
Jul 22, 2014
41,504
7,861
...
✟1,193,891.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
I did read your other post and saw the 2 Samuel post, but it was comparing it to a verse in Chronicles, two different verses. What I wrote about is the same verse in other translations.

Well, I provided an explanation for the 700 horsemen vs. the 7000 horsemen. It is in the latter half of the explanation for supposed contradiction #1.
 
Upvote 0

Bible Highlighter

Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
Site Supporter
Jul 22, 2014
41,504
7,861
...
✟1,193,891.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
  • Like
Reactions: DennisTate
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

1stcenturylady

Spirit-filled follower of Christ
Site Supporter
Feb 13, 2017
11,189
4,193
76
Tennessee
✟431,122.00
Country
United States
Faith
Charismatic
Marital Status
Celibate
Politics
US-Republican
From the KJV, "For we wrestle not against flesh and blood, but against principalities, against powers, against the rulers of the darkness of this world, against spiritual wickedness in high places." (Ephesians 6:12). This has nothing to do with the AIR or FIRMAMENT being inhabited by these devils, but that spiritual WICKEDNESS (not wicked ONES) is in "high places" -- that is, in the high places of government (which is what the verse is about). The devils control and rule over the high places of government in this present evil world. It has nothing to do with the firmament being hell.

One of the guys in my Bible Study said that the demons rule the second heaven. That's why I asked the question. I never heard that before, and don't know exactly where in the Bible it says anything close. But I thought maybe that verse in Ephesians...
 
Upvote 0

1stcenturylady

Spirit-filled follower of Christ
Site Supporter
Feb 13, 2017
11,189
4,193
76
Tennessee
✟431,122.00
Country
United States
Faith
Charismatic
Marital Status
Celibate
Politics
US-Republican
1Co 10:1,2 Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea;

They were baptized in the cloud (the Holy Spirit) and in the sea (Baptism in water). When you get baptized, spiritually it gets in you.

Then what was the need for Jesus to die if they already had the Holy Spirit in them. I believe you are wrong on that theory.
 
Upvote 0

1stcenturylady

Spirit-filled follower of Christ
Site Supporter
Feb 13, 2017
11,189
4,193
76
Tennessee
✟431,122.00
Country
United States
Faith
Charismatic
Marital Status
Celibate
Politics
US-Republican
Well, I provided an explanation for the 700 horsemen vs. the 7000 horsemen. It is in the latter half of the explanation for supposed contradiction #1.

Did you even look at the translation differences of the same verse I posted? The NKJV does not match the KJV, and it seems the KJV is accurate according to the literal translation, but the New KJV is in error.
 
Upvote 0

Bible Highlighter

Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
Site Supporter
Jul 22, 2014
41,504
7,861
...
✟1,193,891.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
Act 12:4 has always bugged me in the KJV.

And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Clearly they were not yet celebrating Easter in the first Century and even if they were (which they were not) neither Herod nor the Jewish people would have cared enough to wait for it to be over.

Although "Pascha" was originally a Hebrew word ("פּסח (pesach)"), Greek, being the language of a predominantly Christian nation, had appropriated the Jewish word and gave it the Christian meaning of "Easter". That is why in modern Greek, the primary meaning of "Πάσχα" is Easter and Passover is actually the secondary meaning when "Πάσχα" is qualified as the "εβραϊκό Πάσχα (Hebrew Pascha)" or the "Πάσχα των ιουδαίων (Pascha of the Jews)". Many other languages of Christendom are like modern Greek in making Easter the primary meaning of the transliteration of "Pascha":

VEvybs_Q_d.jpg

See the entire article here:
“Easter” or “Passover” in Acts 12:4? - King James Version Today
 
Upvote 0

Bible Highlighter

Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
Site Supporter
Jul 22, 2014
41,504
7,861
...
✟1,193,891.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
Did you even look at the translation differences of the same verse I posted? The NKJV does not match the KJV, and it seems the KJV is accurate according to the literal translation, but the New KJV is in error.

New King James is based off the same Greek texts that the other Modern Translations are based off of.
I am in defense of the 1769 KJV.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Bible Highlighter

Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
Site Supporter
Jul 22, 2014
41,504
7,861
...
✟1,193,891.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
Upvote 0

Neal of Zebulun

Active Member
Oct 21, 2017
326
132
34
Texas
✟28,991.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
Check this out:

Genesis 5:
2 Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created.​

They got this verse right. "Adam" is the name of a species and not just one member, nor just one sex.

Unblessedly, the KJV pretty much forgets to translate it as a proper name whenever אדם pops up throughout the rest of the text. They normally translate it as "man." They do this with other distinct Hebrew words too, like איש and אנוש, all too often just translated as "man."

To be fair, I can understand איש being translated into different words here and there, because it's so relative that it can even be used to refer to animals. But אנוש should really be more like "mortal" and אדם, like we already discovered, should just be "Adam," a proper name for a species of creation.

Okay, now the verses. The words in bold are translated from the Hebrew word in the brackets following it:

Psalms 49:
2 Both low [אדם] and high [איש], rich and poor, together.​

What? Not "both man and man, rich and poor, together?"

Psalms 62:
9 Surely men of low degree [בני אדם] are vanity, and men of high degree [בני איש] are a lie: to be laid in the balance, they are altogether lighter than vanity.​

Okay, this one takes yet another common word in the Hebrew [בני] which is a plural construct meaning "sons of" and totally changes its definition too! Now "sons" means "men" and the first "man" means "low degree" and the second "man" means "high degree" and...

What is going on here? Neither אדם nor איש are translated in this manner throughout the rest of the KJV that I was able to find.

It seems that these ordinary Hebrew words suddenly get a new definition when the false ones don't work out.
 
Upvote 0

Neal of Zebulun

Active Member
Oct 21, 2017
326
132
34
Texas
✟28,991.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
Also the KJV got Hebrews 9:16-18 very wrong and inspired a whole slew of English translations to make its same mistakes.

Can you tell us a bit more what you mean? I looked at the KJV here, it makes sense to me. I don't really know the Greek, what are we missing?
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

DamianWarS

Follower of Isa Al Masih
Site Supporter
May 15, 2008
9,486
3,322
✟858,457.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
That's a good catch, I never noticed that before. Had you been on the KJV translating team and pointed that out, they probably would have settled on either the singular or plural, but not both. We can imagine how difficult it was to make all these words as self consistent as possible in the English without a computer!

To answer your question, I think of שמים ("heavens") as an intensive plural, like how we say "the stars" but we really mean the entire night sky. I believe it's related to שם, a common word meaning "name," as in a designation, or mark. There is another related word that is used adverbally to mean "there," as in a definite location, or spot. We are told that the stars are for signs in Genesis 1:14. So I literally think of שמים as meaning "marks" in the sky. But this is perhaps, controversial.

There is an argument that it might be a "dual-plural" like how we say "scissors," even though we mean the one object. The vowel points would seem to indicate this meaning. So "two heavens." Likewise we see the same thing in the Hebrew for "water." Maybe a reference to when Yahweh divided the waters from the waters in Genesis 1:6?

even still, same context, same word, different translation. I don't care which one they settle on but it seems they missed this when doing there checking.
 
Upvote 0