(Moved) The law. Is it done away with? Is it, really?

Dig4truth said:

Many of the laws are conditional. If you are a man, if you are a woman, if you are a priest, if you are in the land, if you are a farmer, etc. However, God being God and knowing the end from the beginning, made a provision in the scriptures for a change of the Priesthood, which is referred to in the NT. So no, not all laws apply to all people.

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Hello Gid4truth.

When the apostle Paul uses the word, 'law', Paul is referring to the entire law. If you are under the law, then you are under the entire law. Given that some of the laws apply to the Levitical priesthood, some to temple functions, e.t.c. The point remains, the law means the entire law, not some selected portion of the law.

The law was given to the Jews, the law was never given to the Gentiles.

Romans 2
14 For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do the Law, are a law to themselves.

The scripture is clear that the Gentiles did not have the law. The only way that anyone can claim that the Gentiles were given the law, is by inference, or by misreading the scripture.

christopheralan88 said:

Well, let's not get ahead of ourselves and be concerned with whether a claim is astonishing or not. Instead, let's just test a belief/tradition to Scripture (see below for how we're defining Scripture) and see where it leads.

All we're doing is role playing Acts 17:11 with the assumption that Paul taught the Berean Jews that Jesus is Messiah and Jesus changed the Law. I'm role playing the Berean Jew who is testing that claim to Scripture as Scripture was defined at that time - the Tanakh ("Old Testament"), since there were no "New Testament" writings yet.

And I agree with what Dig4truth stated above.

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Hello Christopheralan.

Of course the scripture referred to by the authors in the New Testament is the Old Testament. Whether Jesus altered the law, added to the law, or abolished the law, is irrelevant, since the Gentiles were never under the law.

Show me any verse in the New Testament where it says, Gentiles are under the law?

I will show you numerous verses that say, Gentiles are not under the law!

christopheralan88 said:

Hey Bob S,

I, and I'm sure Dig4truth will agree, believe Jesus fulfilled all He came to do, but I differ with you on what it was He fulfilled - or rather what "fulfill" means.

Please consider:

First, a Berean Jew would definitely not accept a Jesus that altered the Law as Messiah, because He would have sinned per Deuteronomy 4:2, 12:32, 13:1-5, and 28:14.

Second, it's obvious that not all the Law applies to everyone - do you see Jesus having to keep the menstrual laws? Of course not, because He's not a woman.

Lastly, the temple, Levitical priesthood, circumcision, and sacrificial system will all be present in the future. I understand that may be a shocker, but read Ezekiel 40-48. The temple that is described there has not been built yet.

Some noteworthy points about the Ezekiel 40-48 temple is that:

1) the glory of God fills this temple (Ezekiel 44:4) (it is His dwelling place)
2) those who are uncircumcised in flesh or heart (regardless of whether they are a child of Israel or a foreigner) will not enter the temple (Ezekiel 44:9) (but of course, you can become circumcised in both heart and flesh and then enter the temple)
3) the Levitical priesthood will return (Ezekiel 44:10-31)
4) Passover and the Festival of Unleavened Bread is celebrated (Ezekiel 45:21)
5) sacrifices/offerings will be done once again (Ezekiel 44:27-29, 45:17, 42:13-14, 42:22).

Remember that almost all of these verses I've quoted are written as God's direct quotes to Ezekiel. God is literally saying these things directly to Ezekiel.

Please don't think that I'm saying that Jesus was not your ultimate sacrifice by which you are saved. That's not what I'm saying by quoting Ezekiel 40-48. You are saved by His sacrifice. In my opinion, if our sin is wiped away/forgiven, then we won't have to do sin offerings - but the nations apart from Israel (Israel includes Gentile believers) will. Instead, we will be allowed to make thanksgiving/peace offerings to God (Leviticus 3).

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Hello Christopheralan.

A strange interpretation.

2) those who are uncircumcised in flesh or heart (regardless of whether they are a child of Israel or a foreigner) will not enter the temple (Ezekiel 44:9) (but of course, you can become circumcised in both heart and flesh and then enter the temple)

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So your claiming that physical circumcision is necessary again?

christopheralan88 said:

Hey bugkiller,

Acts 15 is actually how my dialogue with Bob S started.

If you don't mind, I'd like to begin our discussion with this reply.

If you would, please treat me as if I'm a Berean Jew and you are Paul (Acts 17:11). I'm going to test what you say to Scripture as Scripture was defined at that time - the Tanakh ("Old Testament") since there was no "New Testament" writings yet.

That said, bugkiller, could you tell me about this Jesus I'm hearing about, specifically why you think He's done away with/changed the Law?

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Jeremiah foretold of the New Covenant and many of the things that would be included in it. Such as man would no longer teach his brother about God’s Word.

That is Old Covenant, Jeremiah

ToBeLoved said:

How is that not part of the OT?

If gentiles joined the Hebrews, they had to become circumcised and follow all the Law.

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..

klutedavid said:

Hello Gid4truth.

When the apostle Paul uses the word, 'law', Paul is referring to the entire law. If you are under the law, then you are under the entire law. Given that some of the laws apply to the Levitical priesthood, some to temple functions, e.t.c. The point remains, the law means the entire law, not some selected portion of the law.

The law was given to the Jews, the law was never given to the Gentiles.

Romans 2
14 For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do the Law, are a law to themselves.

The scripture is clear that the Gentiles did not have the law. The only way that anyone can claim that the Gentiles were given the law, is by inference, or by misreading the scripture.

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When Paul uses the term Law he is meaning the "instructions of God". (That's the definition [Torah]).
Are you against the instructions of God?
Do you think the instructions of God should be canceled?
Do you believe that God has come up with better instructions, you know stuff that He didn't think of before?
Are you willing to admit that you are not under the instructions of God?

When God says that the Feasts are the "Feasts of the Lord", are you suggesting that He really meant that they are the Feasts of the "Jews" only?

When the Gentiles are commended for observing the Sabbath, are they breaking the instructions of God because it is for the Jews only?


Just stuff I wonder about, don't feel obligated to answer.

Dig4truth said:

When Paul uses the term Law he is meaning the "instructions of God". (That's the definition [Torah]).
Are you against the instructions of God?
Do you think the instructions of God should be canceled?
Do you believe that God has come up with better instructions, you know stuff that He didn't think of before?
Are you willing to admit that you are not under the instructions of God?

When God says that the Feasts are the "Feasts of the Lord", are you suggesting that He really meant that they are the Feasts of the "Jews" only?

When the Gentiles are commended for observing the Sabbath, are they breaking the instructions of God because it is for the Jews only?


Just stuff I wonder about, don't feel obligated to answer.

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If the Law only means instructions, then why did all of the Hebrews have to PERFECTLY keep it, per God.

The Law was more than instructions. God punished them for not obeying Him. They were commands and commandments.

ToBeLoved said:

If the Law only means instructions, then why did all of the Hebrews have to PERFECTLY keep it, per God.

The Law was more than instructions. God punished them for not obeying Him. They were commands and commandments.

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An instruction my father gave me was to not play in the street. If a car ran over me do you think that was what my father wanted? No, it was a result of disobeying my father's instruction.

What is the difference of a command and an instruction if the person has free will? The person can choose to disobey or not.

Go with me here; if a father had a ridiculous amount of children, say 2 or 3 million, and his instruction was to not teach the other children how to disobey the father, what would be the result of that disobedience?

Would the father allow such a breach of safety? Would he be a good father if he did?

You see, the difference between an instruction and a command is in how you respond to it. If you obey the instruction then that is what it is. If you disobey the instruction then it becomes a command that was broken and the consequences must follow.

We have broken our Father's instructions and therefore are under the law (commands) with the resulting consequences (death). However, because of the unfathomable love of our Father, He has paid the penalty for our disobedience. We are no longer "under the law" in that respect. What you want me to believe is that the instructions are bad. The very thing that our Lord and Savior paid the penality for.

If that's the case then why did He have to pay for our disobedience? Why not just say that the instructions don't count any more?!!! We are free from the Father's instructions and there is no such thing as sin!

But some would have us believe that God sent His Son to die because we disobeyed His instructions and now we can live like there are no instructions.

If the Son died because we disobeyed the Father's instructions or commands, whatever you wish to call them, and now we can be "free from them" what a cheap death that would have been.

But what do the scriptures speak; we are now free to obey the Father's instructions because His spirit lives within us. The same spirit that is in Yeshua which said; “Behold, I come; In the scroll of the book it is written of me. I delight to do Your will, O my God; Your Law is within my heart.”

ToBeLoved said:

If the Law only means instructions, then why did all of the Hebrews have to PERFECTLY keep it, per God.

The Law was more than instructions. God punished them for not obeying Him. They were commands and commandments.

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In my diatribe I didn’t answer your question.

They had to keep the instructions perfectly to have access to God. God is perfect and holy and nothing less can have access.

That being said, they understood that they failed in many ways. That’s the point. They understood they needed a substitute for their transgressions.

Enter the Messaih.

Dig4truth said:

When Paul uses the term Law he is meaning the "instructions of God". (That's the definition [Torah]).

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Hello Dig4truth.

Instructions if you prefer D4T, include all instructions given by God.

Are you against the instructions of God?

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My sinful nature is opposed to God and everything he instructs, I see the wisdom in God's declarations but my flesh cannot abide by those declarations.

Do you think the instructions of God should be canceled?

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It is not about any cancellation, it is more about what applies to us and what does not apply to us. I am a Gentile, uncircumcised, I have never been in a covenant by agreement with God. Israel was in a covenant by agreement with God, Israel repeated a number of times that they would obey the law. I never agreed to that covenant, nor did my father, nor his father, I made no pledge to obey the law so I am not bound by the law.

Do you believe that God has come up with better instructions, you know stuff that He didn't think of before?

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Yes D4T, God is very clever, God had planned all along to surpass the elementary law with love. Christ is the fulfillment of what the law demanded, in Christ is the absolute fulfillment of the law through perfect love. Perfect love met the demand of the law and completed what we could not, love conquered sin and death.

God is the one who met what the law asked for, we were mere spectators.

We need only to believe in Jesus, to believe in the death and resurrection of Jesus to be saved. Anyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved!

Are you willing to admit that you are not under the instructions of God?

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The only command they I am under is the law of Christ.

When God says that the Feasts are the "Feasts of the Lord", are you suggesting that He really meant that they are the Feasts of the "Jews" only?

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Yes sir, I will never celebrate a liberation from Egypt because I was never in Egypt to begin with.

When the Gentiles are commended for observing the Sabbath, are they breaking the instructions of God because it is for the Jews only?

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Gentiles were never required to obey a Sabbath because Gentiles were never under the law. Have you not heard, Gentiles are not circumcised, Gentiles disobey the law and are guiltless.

Just stuff I wonder about, don't feel obligated to answer.

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If you preach the death and resurrection of the Christ (1 Corinthians 15. Romans 10:9)
then I am all ears. If you preach any other stuff, then I disregard you.

ToBeLoved said:

If the Law only means instructions, then why did all of the Hebrews have to PERFECTLY keep it, per God.

The Law was more than instructions. God punished them for not obeying Him. They were commands and commandments.

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Hello ToBeLoved.

God did not just punish Israel, God slaughtered the nation of Israel.

Dig4truth said:

An instruction my father gave me was to not play in the street. If a car ran over me do you think that was what my father wanted? No, it was a result of disobeying my father's instruction.

What is the difference of a command and an instruction if the person has free will? The person can choose to disobey or not.

Go with me here; if a father had a ridiculous amount of children, say 2 or 3 million, and his instruction was to not teach the other children how to disobey the father, what would be the result of that disobedience?

Would the father allow such a breach of safety? Would he be a good father if he did?

You see, the difference between an instruction and a command is in how you respond to it. If you obey the instruction then that is what it is. If you disobey the instruction then it becomes a command that was broken and the consequences must follow.

We have broken our Father's instructions and therefore are under the law (commands) with the resulting consequences (death). However, because of the unfathomable love of our Father, He has paid the penalty for our disobedience. We are no longer "under the law" in that respect. What you want me to believe is that the instructions are bad. The very thing that our Lord and Savior paid the penality for.

If that's the case then why did He have to pay for our disobedience? Why not just say that the instructions don't count any more?!!! We are free from the Father's instructions and there is no such thing as sin!

But some would have us believe that God sent His Son to die because we disobeyed His instructions and now we can live like there are no instructions.

If the Son died because we disobeyed the Father's instructions or commands, whatever you wish to call them, and now we can be "free from them" what a cheap death that would have been.

But what do the scriptures speak; we are now free to obey the Father's instructions because His spirit lives within us. The same spirit that is in Yeshua which said; “Behold, I come; In the scroll of the book it is written of me. I delight to do Your will, O my God; Your Law is within my heart.”

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Consequences.

Have you read in the Old Testament how many times God punished the Hebrews? Even to the point of them becoming slaves in another land?

God told them they must obey ALL of His Law. Perfectly.

Maybe you need familiarize yourself with the punishments they suffered at God’s hands for disobedience

klutedavid said:

Hello ToBeLoved.

God did not just punish Israel, God slaughtered the nation of Israel.

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Yes He did.

klutedavid said:

Hello Dig4truth.

Instructions if you prefer D4T, include all instructions given by God.

My sinful nature is opposed to God and everything he instructs, I see the wisdom in God's declarations but my flesh cannot abide by those declarations.

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Paul has a message for us; I am speaking in human terms because of the weakness of your flesh. For just as you presented your members as slaves to impurity and to lawlessness, resulting in further lawlessness, so now present your members as slaves to righteousness, resulting in sanctification. Rom 6:19

and..

For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh, 4 so that the requirement of the Law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit. 5 For those who are according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who are according to the Spirit, the things of the Spirit. Rom 8:3-5

If you walk in the spirit you will not carry out the deeds of the flesh.

But I say, walk by the Spirit, and you will not carry out the desire of the flesh. 17 For the flesh sets its desire against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh; for these are in opposition to one another, so that you may not do the things that you please. Gal 5:16-17

Walk in the spirit.

It is not about any cancellation, it is more about what applies to us and what does not apply to us. I am a Gentile, uncircumcised, I have never been in a covenant by agreement with God. Israel was in a covenant by agreement with God, Israel repeated a number of times that they would obey the law. I never agreed to that covenant, nor did my father, nor his father, I made no pledge to obey the law so I am not bound by the law.

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The ONLY way to come to the Father is through a Covenant. If you have not entered into a Covenant with the Father then you need to consider just what you are basing your salvation on. A handshake, a written note or your good word? Yeshua's blood Covenant is what I prescribe.

Yes D4T, God is very clever, God had planned all along to surpass the elementary law with love. Christ is the fulfillment of what the law demanded, in Christ is the absolute fulfillment of the law through perfect love. Perfect love met the demand of the law and completed what we could not, love conquered sin and death.

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What do you think the instructions of God are about? Yeshua said that they are about loving God and our neighbor as ourselves. Can you give me an example of love witout an instruction of God?

God is the one who met what the law asked for, we were mere spectators.
We need only to believe in Jesus, to believe in the death and resurrection of Jesus to be saved. Anyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved!
The only command they I am under is the law of Christ.
Yes sir, I will never celebrate a liberation from Egypt because I was never in Egypt to begin with.
Gentiles were never required to obey a Sabbath because Gentiles were never under the law. Have you not heard, Gentiles are not circumcised, Gentiles disobey the law and are guiltless.
If you preach the death and resurrection of the Christ (1 Corinthians 15. Romans 10:9)
then I am all ears. If you preach any other stuff, then I disregard you.

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This is where I pull the plug. Not all diatribes are equal.
Do you really think God needs spectators?
Faith without works is dead. So much for an easy-believeism.
The Law of Messiah is to keep the instructions of the Father.
Gentiles can sin and not be held guilty? Wow, Messiah didn't have to die for them, did He? All Gentiles can go to heaven but those awefull Jews have to go to h*ll, right?

Think through some of your beliefs. Carry them thru their logical conclusions and you may find that yu have been taught rubbish.

ToBeLoved said:

Yes He did.

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Then Israel is no more? Is this what you're saying?

Hello Dig4truth.

I asked you for a verse stating that Gentiles were under the law, I assume the following verses are what you claim. To be verses telling Gentiles that they are under the law.

Paul has a message for us; I am speaking in human terms because of the weakness of your flesh. For just as you presented your members as slaves to impurity and to lawlessness, resulting in further lawlessness, so now present your members as slaves to righteousness, resulting in sanctification. Rom 6:19

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A slave to righteousness is a slave to Jesus Christ, we receive the righteousness of Christ as a free gift. Your attempting to exert your own righteousness by legal obedience. These verses do not declare that Gentiles are under the law. That is inference.
I need a verse that says Gentiles are under the law.

For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh, 4 so that the requirement of the Law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit. 5 For those who are according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who are according to the Spirit, the things of the Spirit. Rom 8:3-5

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Yet again, not one verse that actually says Gentiles are under the law, as usual inference is used to suggest a legal obedience. The law was never intended for the righteous, Christians have no use for the law. The law was made for the unrighteous, murderers, liars, e.t.c.

If you believe in the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ, then you are washed clean in Christ's blood.

If you walk in the spirit you will not carry out the deeds of the flesh.

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Well that is correct, walking in the Holy Spirit means what it says. Walking in the Holy Spirit is bearing the fruit of the Holy Spirit. The fruit of the Holy Spirit is love, patience, kindness, e.t.c. The fruit of the Holy Spirit is the opposite of what the law condemned, i.e., sin.

A fruit of the Holy Spirit is generosity, being generous is the exact opposite of stealing.
See how bearing the fruit of the Holy Spirit is the fulfillment of the law!

But I say, walk by the Spirit, and you will not carry out the desire of the flesh. 17 For the flesh sets its desire against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh; for these are in opposition to one another, so that you may not do the things that you please

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. Gal 5:16-17

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Still not one verse that commands the Gentiles to obey the law.

Another fruit of the Holy Spirit is gentleness, a gentle person would never kill someone.
Once again, we see the fruit of the Holy Spirit surpassing what the law required.

The ONLY way to come to the Father is through a Covenant. If you have not entered into a Covenant with the Father then you need to consider just what you are basing your salvation on. A handshake, a written note or your good word? Yeshua's blood Covenant is what I prescribe.

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Yes, the blood covenant was not like the covenant that God made with Israel.

Hebrews 8:7-9
Behold, days are coming, says the Lord, when I will effect a new covenant
with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah. Not like the covenant
which I made with their fathers on the day when I took them by the hand
to lead them out of the land of Egypt.

Two different covenants!

What do you think the instructions of God are about? Yeshua said that they are about loving God and our neighbor as ourselves. Can you give me an example of love witout an instruction of God?

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The commandments that were issued at Mt Sinai condemned Israel.

The commandments were given to herald the need for the messiah.

The commandments could only ever be obeyed by perfect love, Jesus.

This is where I pull the plug. Not all diatribes are equal.
Do you really think God needs spectators?

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God delivered the solution from all eternity, before the earth existed. We were only ever spectators to God's absolute solution to the problem of sin.

Faith without works is dead.

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Yet without faith you will not see God, faith is a gift anyway. Stop taking credit for God's handiwork.

So much for an easy-believeism.

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Anyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved!

Easy or hard is irrelevant, what matters above all is what Christ has done for us.

The Law of Messiah is to keep the instructions of the Father.
Gentiles can sin and not be held guilty? Wow, Messiah didn't have to die for them, did He? All Gentiles can go to heaven but those awefull Jews have to go to h*ll, right?

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Jesus did what His Father asked Him to do, to lay down His life for you.

If God holds you guilty for sin, then you will not make it to heaven.

Think through some of your beliefs. Carry them thru their logical conclusions.

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I cannot see past the death and resurrection of the Christ, that is my redemption. My flesh is dead in Christ, I have no need of any law.

Dig4truth said:

Then Israel is no more? Is this what you're saying?

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Hello Dig4truth.

Yes, Israel as a nation vanished two thousand years ago.

The old covenant was broken by God, the nation lost it's promised land.

Israel is no longer the covenant nation.

Dig4truth said:

You've missed some of the finer points.
In Scripture it speaks about the change of the priesthood.
In Scripture it speaks about the destruction of the Temple and the scattering of God's people Israel.

If these things are included in Scripture then it is Scripture.

Are you trying to claim that God cannot suspend the Temple and its service if He foretold it to us in Scripture?

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That is interesting coming from the side you are on that the law never changes. You made my point 100% The law was fulfilled and there is no indication that only part of it was. That is why Paul was free to say that the law was until Christ. Gal 3:19 Why, then, was the law given at all? It was added because of transgressions until the Seed to whom the promise referred had come.

Do you see the word "until"? Who is the "Seed"? See verse 16. That is why he was able to write in Eph 2:14 For he himself is our peace, who has made the two groups one and has destroyed the barrier, the dividing wall of hostility, 15 by setting aside in his flesh the law with its commands and regulations.

Are you suggesting that God cannot change the priesthood if He said it was going to happen in Scripture? Because that's what I'm hearing.

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I have not said a word to you and I didn't write that God coud not change the priesthood. In case you didn't get it I was referring to your stand on the subject. You tell us we have to observe ritual laws given to Israel only and I wrote that if Jesus has not fulfilled all the law then not one jot or one tittle could pass from it and that would include the Levitical priesthood. See how ridiculous it is to take the stand you and all the law pushers are doing?

And I never said that you have to uphold the law. That is up to each individual to decide to obey God or not.

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In that sentence you more than told me I am not obeying God and that God expects us to observe the law. That is the law that Jesus fulfilled at the Cross The one that by fulfilling it brought it to an end. Look up the word fulfilled.

Yeshua has not fulfilled all of the law and the prophets yet. His second coming and subsequent judgment is still pending.

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See what I mean? If He has not fulfilled the law completely then not one jot or one tittle can pass from it. You are obligated to keep all of it my friend. No excuses for the priesthood changing, no excuse that Jesus is the Lamb slain from the foundation of the Earth and we do not have to sacrifice animals because Jesus has done it all. No excuses for not building a Temple and hiring the Levites to run it. No excuse for trimming your sideburns and on and on. Where did you learn all that you write? It certainly is not found in scripture. All you are doing is confusing the issue. Either Jesus is God and He came and did all He came to do or He was a fake. God does't leave thing half done.

But let's pretend that He has, we still have heaven and earth here and that is part of the stipulation also! Do you agree or have you overlooked that part of the Scripture?

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The term "heaven and earth" is a metaphor. Then, of course, Jesus goes on and uses the word "until" Which means Heaven and Earth won't pass away if everything is accomplished which it certainly was. God sent Jesus into the World to save the World and that is what He did He accomplished His task and if you don't believe He did then you believe He was something way less than God.

Believe me, there is nothing comical about this.

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Isn't that the truth, well sometimes it does us all some good to do some critiquing.

christopheralan88 said:

Hey Bob S,

I, and I'm sure Dig4truth will agree, believe Jesus fulfilled all He came to do, but I differ with you on what it was He fulfilled - or rather what "fulfill" means.

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Well, the subject of Jesus speech was the law and prophets. So I guess you are trying to tell us it was something else He fulfilled? By the way my dictionary tells me fulfilled means to bring to an end. Do you have a better meaning?

Please consider:

First, a Berean Jew would definitely not accept a Jesus that altered the Law as Messiah, because He would have sinned per Deuteronomy 4:2, 12:32, 13:1-5, and 28:14.

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Jesus didn't alter the law. He fulfilled the law. No one has tried to say He altered it. Where did that come from?

Second, it's obvious that not all the Law applies to everyone - do you see Jesus having to keep the menstrual laws? Of course not, because He's not a woman.

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That is not the point. Are you or your hierarchy able to add or subtract from the law. Remember Jesus said not one jot....

Lastly, the temple, Levitical priesthood, circumcision, and sacrificial system will all be present in the future. I understand that may be a shocker, but read Ezekiel 40-48. The temple that is described there has not been built yet.

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Please try that again. Ex 40-48 is not a valid number. I do not believe there is a verse that tells us that after Jesus gave us the gift of eternal life we will go back and slaughter lambs. Do you really believe the sacrificial laws will be imposed again? OY!

Some noteworthy points about the Ezekiel 40-48 temple is that:

1) the glory of God fills this temple (Ezekiel 44:4) (it is His dwelling place)
2) those who are uncircumcised in flesh or heart (regardless of whether they are a child of Israel or a foreigner) will not enter the temple (Ezekiel 44:9) (but of course, you can become circumcised in both heart and flesh and then enter the temple)
3) the Levitical priesthood will return (Ezekiel 44:10-31)
4) Passover and the Festival of Unleavened Bread is celebrated (Ezekiel 45:21)
5) sacrifices/offerings will be done once again (Ezekiel 44:27-29, 45:17, 42:13-14, 42:22).

Remember that almost all of these verses I've quoted are written as God's direct quotes to Ezekiel. God is literally saying these things directly to Ezekiel.

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27 On the day he goes into the inner court of the sanctuary to minister in the sanctuary, he is to offer a sin offeringa]">[a] for himself, declares the Sovereign Lord.

28 “‘I am to be the only inheritance the priests have. You are to give them no possession in Israel; I will be their possession. 29 They will eat the grain offerings, the sin offerings and the guilt offerings; and everything in Israel devotedb]">[b] to the Lord will belong to them.
Where in those verses tell us we will be doing that "in the future".

Please don't think that I'm saying that Jesus was not your ultimate sacrifice by which you are saved. That's not what I'm saying by quoting Ezekiel 40-48. You are saved by His sacrifice. In my opinion, if our sin is wiped away/forgiven, then we won't have to do sin offerings - but the nations apart from Israel (Israel includes Gentile believers) will. Instead, we will be allowed to make thanksgiving/peace offerings to God (Leviticus 3).

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Oh come on brother, you are trying to tell me Jesus blood doesn't cover all people in our future? That..... I cannot write what I am thinking.

christopheralan88 said:

Hey bugkiller,

I was on vacation for the beginning of this week, so I'm catching up on this thread now. Why do you say that what Jesus called the new covenant is being rejected? What are you referring to?

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Because it is. The primary reason is the stuff being posted about a renewed covenant.

bugkiller