Why did God ...

Newlyrestoredgospel777

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Are you saying that Adam did not also eat the same fruit that Eve did? The Bible says that he did, and was also "deceived" and "disobeyed" the clear Commandment from God. I know of the text you refer to, but this is speaking of Adam's deception by satan directly, which was not the case, as it was Eve who was tempted to eat the fruit, and then passed it on to Adam. the devil deceived Eve, and Eve deceived Adam!

Eve never deceived Adam H.E, Adam H.E knew what the consequences were because He saw the effects it had on her! She immediately lost her Shekinah Glory (raiment) and shrunk to the size of a seed (which is 10% of Man's Original size - 60ft -6ft, and chose to eat the fruit knowing what would happen.

The fall had to take place, Man had to become mortal in order to procreate. Just as JESUS CHRIST Our Supreme LORD knew what Judas Iscariot would do, and the result of it, so to did Father Adam H.E know what Eve would do, and the result of it. For Adam H.E saw the LOGOS.
 
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Saved.By.Grace

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Eve never deceived Adam H.E, Adam H.E knew what the consequences were because He saw the effects it had on her! She immediately lost her Shekinah Glory (raiment) and shrunk to the size of a seed (which is 10% of Man's Original size - 60ft -6ft, and chose to eat the fruit knowing what would happen.

The fall had to take place, Man had to become mortal in order to procreate. Just as JESUS CHRIST Our Supreme LORD knew what Judas Iscariot would do, and the result of it, so to did Father Adam H.E know what Eve would do, and the result of it. For Adam H.E saw the LOGOS.

"Eve never deceived Adam"? Read your Bible again
 
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salt-n-light

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Eve never deceived Adam H.E, Adam H.E knew what the consequences were because He saw the effects it had on her!
No. Both of them knew not to eat of the tree for they would surely die. Eve was deceived first, and then deceived Adam.The "effects" happened to them at the same time. (Genesis 3:6-7)

She immediately lost her Shekinah Glory (raiment) and shrunk to the size of a seed (which is 10% of Man's Original size - 60ft -6ft, and chose to eat the fruit knowing what would happen.

There's no scripture to back that up at all.

The fall had to take place, Man had to become mortal in order to procreate.

No, they were commissioned to multiply before the fall. (Genesis 1:27-28)
 
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Newlyrestoredgospel777

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No. Both of them knew not to eat of the tree for they would surely die. Eve was deceived first, and then deceived Adam.The "effects" happened to them at the same time. (Genesis 3:6-7)



There's no scripture to back that up at all.



No, they were commissioned to multiply before the fall. (Genesis 1:27-28)
They could not procreate in their original state because Heaven is perfect world. Therefore, everything is in its perfect state. The GOD is the Spirit of Prophecy, HE was prophesying. The fall of Man and the fallen earth did not come about until after the fall. So to claim that they were not perfect is in error. For how then can we say that we are fallen?

If the fruit made them naked (lost raiment - Glory) then this happened to Mother Eve first, because she ate first.

Except a seed falls to the ground and dies, it abideth alone. But if the seed dies, it bears much fruit. The seed was Father Adam H.E who had to die to procreate the body of Christ - that is the church. The church is every child of the kingdom that has ever lived in the earth and is alive in the earth today.

No where does it say that Adam H.E was deceived. This is just the nonsense you have all been taught. Show me the verse that says he was deceived, ive shown you the verse which says he wasn't.

1 tim 2:14
 
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Aseyesee

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The God of the Holy Bible is Almighty, and does as He pleases, and does not owe us an explanation for His actions! We must always remember that He is the Potter, and we are the clay. The words of king Nebuchadnezzar sum it up best:

"I, Nebuchadnezzar, lifted my eyes to heaven, and my understanding returned to me; and I blessed the Most High and praised and honored Him Who lives forever: For His Dominion is an everlasting dominion, And His kingdom is from generation to generation. All the inhabitants of the earth are reputed as nothing; He does according to His will in the army of heaven And among the inhabitants of the earth. No one can restrain His Hand Or say to Him, “What have You done?” (Daniel 4:34-35)

This is a foundational absolute concerning consciousness, reflected in the act of losing your soul, or picking up your cross ... but God calls everyone to reason with him, just as he causes everyone who loses their soul to find it again.
 
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Aseyesee

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your question is about a commandment given to pre-fall Adam and Eve and so I answered it based on that context. The context of 2 Cor. 5:21 is far removed.

regardless who imparts the righteousness without choice it is still superficial.

A thought for your prior post and the one you are replying to ...

What is rightousness ... to an individual it is only as great as their knowing of it, which is the same as a commandment; it becomes something we walk in, as he walks in this truth in us.
 
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Ken Rank

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issue a commandment?
Believe it or not, "commandment" is not a good translation for mitzvah. The Jews have called them, "The 10 Words" for a very long time and for good reason. While they are absolute (hence the idea of commandment) they are really statements of fact, "Don't murder," or "Don't steal" rather than YOU SHALL NOT....... . Now, why? That is simple... God is holy and righteous and EVERY COMMANDMENT EVER GIVEN, stands in harmony with or is opposed to, His character and authority. So He simple makes known His character and His will for His creation by revealing what stands in harmony with or opposed to His character. And that comes to us in the form of statements that we follow because we desire, out of love for Him, to be in line with His character.
 
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Aseyesee

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Believe it or not, "commandment" is not a good translation for mitzvah. The Jews have called them, "The 10 Words" for a very long time and for good reason. While they are absolute (hence the idea of commandment) they are really statements of fact, "Don't murder," or "Don't steal" rather than YOU SHALL NOT....... . Now, why? That is simple... God is holy and righteous and EVERY COMMANDMENT EVER GIVEN, stands in harmony with or is opposed to, His character and authority. So He simple makes known His character and His will for His creation by revealing what stands in harmony with or opposed to His character. And that comes to us in the form of statements that we follow because we desire, out of love for Him, to be in line with His character.
Under this auspeice, describe the first commandment with promise ...
 
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Ken Rank

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Under this auspice, describe the first commandment with promise ...
I am not sure I understand the question. Obviously honor father and mother is that "commandment" but auspice is "favorable sign," so what are you asking? Honoring our parents is God's will, the family unit is a picture of our relationship to Him and thus, when we honor our parents and function within the family unit according to God's desire... there is a promise attached because it pleases God.

God's "commandments" (if you prefer that word) always existed and are eternal. When He "issued them" He was simply making known something to us... but they had previously existed being eternal therefore, "issued them" can be misleading.

Your question though, "Why did God issue a commandment" and this follow-up have me confused, so clarify please.
 
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DamianWarS

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A thought for your prior post and the one you are replying to ...

What is rightousness ... to an individual it is only as great as their knowing of it, which is the same as a commandment; it becomes something we walk in, as he walks in this truth in us.

then you've answered you're own question
 
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Aseyesee

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I am not sure I understand the question. Obviously honor father and mother is that "commandment" but auspice is "favorable sign," so what are you asking? Honoring our parents is God's will, the family unit is a picture of our relationship to Him and thus, when we honor our parents and function within the family unit according to God's desire... there is a promise attached because it pleases God.

God's "commandments" (if you prefer that word) always existed and are eternal. When He "issued them" He was simply making known something to us... but they had previously existed being eternal therefore, "issued them" can be misleading.

Your question though, "Why did God issue a commandment" and this follow-up have me confused, so clarify please.

In reference to the first commandment ...

From one view, a commandment that always existed requires the opposite of that commandment to have always existed, or the commandment is a mute point.
 
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Ken Rank

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In reference to the first commandment ...

From one view, a commandment that always existed requires the opposite of that commandment to have always existed, or the commandment is a mute point.
Well, that is man's reasoning. If "do not murder" is one view... then we are to murder (kill with intent) in order to balance it out and remain in harmony with God's character? I don't think so! :)
 
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PeaceJoyLove

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Believe it or not, "commandment" is not a good translation for mitzvah. The Jews have called them, "The 10 Words" for a very long time and for good reason. While they are absolute (hence the idea of commandment) they are really statements of fact, "Don't murder," or "Don't steal" rather than YOU SHALL NOT....... . Now, why? That is simple... God is holy and righteous and EVERY COMMANDMENT EVER GIVEN, stands in harmony with or is opposed to, His character and authority. So He simple makes known His character and His will for His creation by revealing what stands in harmony with or opposed to His character. And that comes to us in the form of statements that we follow because we desire, out of love for Him, to be in line with His character.
In the beginning there was but one commandment from God..."Thou shalt not eat..."...
 
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