There are a couple of passages I'd like to look at:
"16 And this woman, a daughter of Abraham as she is, whom Satan has bound for eighteen long years, should she not have been released from this bond on the Sabbath day?”" Lk. 13:16 (NASB)
If God is sovereign over all things, then how could Christ say that Satan has bound her? Was Satan allowed to bind her by God? If so, then wouldn't God be partially to blame? Yet Christ seems to blame the devil. Also, the book of Acts:
"38 [ab]You know of Jesus of Nazareth, how God anointed Him with the Holy Spirit and with power, [ac]and how He went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with Him." Ac. 10:38 (NASB)
Same concept, again. Here's another passage that may also present a "contradiction":
" 4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the [c]knowledge of the truth." 1 Tim. 2:4 (NASB)
If God desires all men to be saved, and some are not, then God obviously was not sovereign over them not being saved.
One further "contradiction":
"21 Then the Lord spoke to Moses, “Go down, warn the people, so that they do not break through to the Lord to gaze, and many of them [j]perish. 22 Also let the priests who come near to the Lord consecrate themselves, or else the Lord will break out against them.”" Ex. 19:21-22 (NASB)
God clearly does not want to kill the people, because if he did he could just strike them dead at the foot of the mount. Yet God tells the people not to come up, or else he will kill them. This indicates that if the people do come up, God will have no choice but to kill them. This means that there is something uncontrollable about the nature of God.
What does all of this mean? Thoughts?
"16 And this woman, a daughter of Abraham as she is, whom Satan has bound for eighteen long years, should she not have been released from this bond on the Sabbath day?”" Lk. 13:16 (NASB)
If God is sovereign over all things, then how could Christ say that Satan has bound her? Was Satan allowed to bind her by God? If so, then wouldn't God be partially to blame? Yet Christ seems to blame the devil. Also, the book of Acts:
"38 [ab]You know of Jesus of Nazareth, how God anointed Him with the Holy Spirit and with power, [ac]and how He went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with Him." Ac. 10:38 (NASB)
Same concept, again. Here's another passage that may also present a "contradiction":
" 4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the [c]knowledge of the truth." 1 Tim. 2:4 (NASB)
If God desires all men to be saved, and some are not, then God obviously was not sovereign over them not being saved.
One further "contradiction":
"21 Then the Lord spoke to Moses, “Go down, warn the people, so that they do not break through to the Lord to gaze, and many of them [j]perish. 22 Also let the priests who come near to the Lord consecrate themselves, or else the Lord will break out against them.”" Ex. 19:21-22 (NASB)
God clearly does not want to kill the people, because if he did he could just strike them dead at the foot of the mount. Yet God tells the people not to come up, or else he will kill them. This indicates that if the people do come up, God will have no choice but to kill them. This means that there is something uncontrollable about the nature of God.
What does all of this mean? Thoughts?