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For example.
Matthew 24:6 And ye shall hear of wars and rumours of wars: see that ye be not troubled: for all these things must come to pass, but the end is not yet.
7 For nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom: and there shall be famines, and pestilences, and earthquakes, in divers places.
Apparently this will be the case all the way up until the 2nd coming. Or better yet, once the 2nd coming has occurred, this will no longer be the case in the world.
Isaiah 2:3 And many people shall go and say, Come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.
4 And he shall judge among the nations, and shall rebuke many people: and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.
Here we see just the opposite of the former passage. This passage states----and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.
If the former continues up until the 2nd coming, and that the latter tells us nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more, hasn't it then been determined by chronology that the time specified in Isaiah 2:3-4 has to follow after Matthew 24:6-7 are no longer true?
Why then do some place the time of Matthew 24:6-7 parallel with that of the time of Isaiah 2:4, where it seems rather obvious, that nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom, contradicts nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more?
How can both be true at the same time?
Obviously there are Premils and Amils on this board. By placing Isaiah 2:4 post the 2nd coming, based on the argument I just submitted, how can that not prove without a doubt, that between these 2 named positions, Premil would have to be the correct position?
Matthew 24:6 And ye shall hear of wars and rumours of wars: see that ye be not troubled: for all these things must come to pass, but the end is not yet.
7 For nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom: and there shall be famines, and pestilences, and earthquakes, in divers places.
Apparently this will be the case all the way up until the 2nd coming. Or better yet, once the 2nd coming has occurred, this will no longer be the case in the world.
Isaiah 2:3 And many people shall go and say, Come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.
4 And he shall judge among the nations, and shall rebuke many people: and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.
Here we see just the opposite of the former passage. This passage states----and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.
If the former continues up until the 2nd coming, and that the latter tells us nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more, hasn't it then been determined by chronology that the time specified in Isaiah 2:3-4 has to follow after Matthew 24:6-7 are no longer true?
Why then do some place the time of Matthew 24:6-7 parallel with that of the time of Isaiah 2:4, where it seems rather obvious, that nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom, contradicts nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more?
How can both be true at the same time?
Obviously there are Premils and Amils on this board. By placing Isaiah 2:4 post the 2nd coming, based on the argument I just submitted, how can that not prove without a doubt, that between these 2 named positions, Premil would have to be the correct position?