Good Friday, a doctrine of men?

rstrats said:

Yeshua HaDerekh,
re: "How are you getting 3 days and 3 nights...exactly"



I'm not, if by "exactly" you mean 72 hours. What makes you think that I am?

BTW, you have 2 questions directed to you in post #198.

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rstrats said:

Yeshua HaDerekh,
re: "We have 2 witnesses on the road to Emmaus which proves Yeshua died on Friday and rose on Sunday."

I don't see how that "proves" anything. Cleopas said "today is the third day since these things happened". Therefore, there had to have been a second day since the things happened and finally there had to have been a first day since the things happened. So until you can show me an actual example where a first day since something happened had to be referring to the same day, you're never going to convince me that that had to be the case.

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Yeshua HaDerekh said:

Then remain in your ignorance...

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rstrats said:

Yeshua HaDerekh,
re: "Then remain in your ignorance... "

So educate me by providing actual examples where a "first day since something happened" had to be referring to the same day.

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Yeshua HaDerekh said:

Friday is day 1...Saturday is day 2 and Sunday is day 3...there is no day 0. When he said today is the 3rd day (day 3)...we know he died on Friday and rose on Sunday. Pretty simple.

Yeshua even says it! Do you believe Him?
In Luke 13:32, Jesus referred to “Today and tomorrow, and the 3rd day.” Luke shows Yeshua Himself using inclusive timing!

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rstrats said:

prodromos,
re: " This is the figure of speech known as synecdoche, where the whole, 'day and night' represents the part."

Please support your assertion by providing an example where "x" days and "x" nights were said to be involved with an event when that couldn't have meant that at least a part of each one of the "x" days and at least a part of each one of the "x" nights would be involved.

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