Comparing the KJV to the NKJV

1watchman · Sep 11, 2017

1watchman said:
It seems that most professing Christians today want only a general idea of what happened in biblical times, whereas the meaning God intends for full understanding seems to many of us what He says by the KJV (and has been acceptable by Bible scholars over 300 - 400 years of study. I want to be as close to the mind and intent of God as possible ---and I don't find it in the modern ideas of Bible changes. "To each his own", I allow!

To qualify this further, I think it fair to say: "all versions of the Bible have shown errors, for man is not perfect, but we need to be careful as to whether it effects essential truths ---right? I personally use the Scofield Reference Bible of KJV for study, since there is much help in the margins and footnotes to correct identified errors, and does not change the established venerable texts. Again I say: "To each his own"!

Radagast · Sep 11, 2017

vinsight4u said:
Many years ago, I compared prophecy type of verses between the KJV and new versions as to the end times. Have yet to show you some of the things that I have known for years are big differences. One is, in some new versions, who will burn the city of mystery, Babylon. In the KJV, which is right -only the ten horns will burn it. But in the new ones - the beast and the ten kings will set it ablaze.
What started me looking at the NJKV now is, wanted a large print of the KJV. About the only place that is around here is Wal-Mart. After going there a second time and still they don't have one, had decided to buy the NKJV and make it into the KJV on the major verses that I want to focus on. Started skimming the OT and found - "Jehovah" is put there by checking the footnotes. Saw some other differences, so thought would see what others think. One for the NKJV is 2 Samuel 5:21. When saw it, went - hey - David burned those idols. He did not just have them carried off. But here the new versions are right. The KJV translators have taken what seems in the knowledge from 1 Chronicles 14:12 and applied it. as to they were burned,

The ESV is probably a better translation than either the KJV or the NKJV.

vinsight4u · Sep 11, 2017

Radagast · Sep 11, 2017

vinsight4u said:
Does it have the words that the translators added in italics? That is one of my rules, which the KJV and the NKJV both put some text in that form.

Translators don't "add" words, and putting some words into italics is not as helpful as you might think.

vinsight4u · Sep 11, 2017

vinsight4u · Sep 11, 2017

Radagast · Sep 11, 2017

vinsight4u said:
There is one in the KJV and NKJV as to two men in a bed that I have changed in my KJV.

The ESV has "two in one bed." The NIV has "two people in one bed." Both are better translations than the KJV.

vinsight4u · Sep 11, 2017

vinsight4u · Sep 11, 2017

Radagast · Sep 11, 2017

vinsight4u said:
Don't like the word "worship" as the KJV has it. Others have "honour" and "glory".

Most modern translations have "honour," which is the best translation of the Greek word in this context.

vinsight4u said:
Don't recall seeing an ESV at Wal-Mart the other day.

Maybe Wal-Mart doesn't sell it.

vinsight4u said:
Does it put the word "Jehovah" in footnotes?

There is a question about how to translate YHWH, the name of God which Jews would not say ("Jehovah" is a mispronunciation of YHWH). As with the KJV (almost always) and with the NKJV, the ESV has "LORD" (in all capitals).

Exodus 6:3 is one of the few times (out of 6,519 occurrences of YHWH) that the KJV translates "Jehovah." The ESV has "LORD" in that verse.

vinsight4u · Sep 11, 2017

vinsight4u · Sep 11, 2017

Radagast · Sep 11, 2017

vinsight4u said:
I know LORD in all caps means - Jehovah - YHWH. Did not know that it is mispronuned, so the KJV translators almost always put "LORD".

The Jews would write "YHWH" with the vowel sounds of "Adonai," to remind themselves to say "Adonai" (which means "LORD") when reading, because they thought it was blasphemy to say the name of God. The English "Jehovah" results from combining those letters and vowel sounds, which the Jews never did. In fact, nobody knows for sure how to pronounce "YHWH."

What I meant about the KJV is that "YHWH" gets translated as "LORD" almost 7,000 times, and as "Jehovah" only 7 times. The NKJV and ESV translate as "LORD" every time.

vinsight4u · Sep 13, 2017

vinsight4u · Sep 13, 2017

Radagast · Sep 13, 2017

vinsight4u said:
Exodus 5:3

“And they said, The God of the Hebrews hath met with us: let us go, we pray thee, three days' journey into the desert, and sacrifice unto the LORD our God; lest he fall upon us with pestilence, or with the sword.”
KJV has "let us go"

Something I've noticed in the NKJV is the word "please" seems to be added in at times - not in italics.
NKJV has "Please let us go"

The "please" in the NKJV and the ESV has the same function as "we pray thee" in the KJV, turning the "let us" into a polite request. Is "we pray thee" in italics in the KJV? The NIV leaves it out altogether, since it's not explicitly there in the Hebrew.

vinsight4u · Sep 13, 2017

vinsight4u · Sep 13, 2017

Radagast · Sep 13, 2017

vinsight4u said:
Before looking at the NJKV recently, I did not know that - "we pray thee" meant "please.

One of the problems with the KJV is that so few people understand the language.

vinsight4u said:
Here is what Moses was told to say per the KJV in Exodus 3:18.

The Hebrew is identical in that verse.

Now, as a rule, going by Strongs is a dangerous thing, because sometimes there is an aspect of the Greek or Hebrew that does demand translation with multiple words. Here the translators of the NKJV, ESV, HCSB, NASB, NLT, and other versions feel that "let us" is not a good translation of the Hebrew request, and that "please let us" is better (although the translators of the NIV disagree).

Comparing the KJV to the NKJV

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