Let’s begin with:
Mark 12:29 “The most important one,” answered Jesus, “is this: ‘Hear, O Israel:
The Lord our God, the Lord is one."
Mark 12:29 means, if Jesus Christ is God then we have to find in the Gospels that (1) the Father is God, (2) that Jesus and the Father are one, (3) that Jesus and the Holy Spirit are one.
(1)
To know that the Father is God
Jesus taught the disciples to pray “our Father”.
What is the meaning of a prayer? To whom is a prayer addressed?
I define a prayer is always and is only meant and addressed to God.
Jesus could not be wrong in His teachings, those lead to first conclusion:
The Father is God.
(2)
To know the oneness of Jesus and the Father
a)
An introduction:
(Luke 8:43-48) And a woman afflicted with hemorrhages for twelve years, who had spent her whole livelihood on doctors and was unable to be cured by anyone, came up behind him and touched the tassel on his cloak. Immediately her bleeding stopped. .... When the woman realized that she had not escaped notice, she came forward trembling. Falling down before him, she explained in the presence of all the people why she had touched him and how she had been healed immediately. (48) He said to her, "Daughter, your faith has saved you; go in peace."
Jesus addressed the woman, “Daughter”.
Now, what was the age of Jesus and what was the age of that woman? In the social community, was it upright that Jesus addressed the woman with the title “Daughter”?
Who is proper to address one with “Daughter”? It is a greeting by a father. Here indirectly, Jesus was introducing Himself, that He is our Father.
b) Jesus introduced that He and the Father are one
I quote the sentences:
(John 10:30) The Father and I are one."
(John 12:45) "and whoever sees me sees the one who sent me."
(John 14:9) .... Whoever has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, “Show us the Father'?
(John 14:10) Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on my own. The Father who dwells in me is doing his works.
(John 14:11) Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father is in me, or else, believe because of the works themselves.
Those five sentences are taught in plain words, we need only to accept, I mean no explanation is needed.
With the acceptance, we may conclude that:
Jesus Christ and the Father are one.
Then, we may also conclude that:
The Father is God. Jesus Christ and the Father are one. Jesus Christ is God.
(3)
To know the oneness of Jesus and the Holy Spirit
What does the Gospels say?
a)
In the beginning, about the birth of Jesus Christ,
(Luke 1:35) “.... The holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. ....”
The sentence declares that the Holy Spirit came upon the Virgin Mary.
With that in mind, I like to say: Mary conceived the Holy Spirit and Mary delivered a baby named Jesus; therefore, it might be concluded:
The Holy Spirit and Jesus are one.
b) In the end of the story, near by the time for Jesus to leave the disciples,
(John 14:18) I will not leave you orphans; I will come to you.
Jesus promised that He would not leave the disciples (and us) as orphans, and Jesus promised to come back.
Look to what Jesus said: “I will come to you”. Jesus did not say that He will send others. Look also to the sentence that follows, Jesus repeated His promise,
(John 14:28) ... I am going away and I will come back to you. .…
What is the meaning of “will come back to you” in John 14:28? Are the words addressed to His disciples as the hearers or to the Church's members in the coming age? If it were addressed either to the disciples or to the Church's members, it means till now Jesus has not come back, because until now neither the disciples nor the Church's members witnessed Jesus has come back.
Or, shall we conclude that Jesus has come back based on John 20:11-29, Luke 24:13-49, Mark 16:9-18, Matthew 28:16-20 (after resurrection, Jesus appeared to His disciples)?
I don’t think so. Because, Jesus did ascend to the place He came from (Mark 16:19, Luke 24:50-51), and, since the time He has never come back.
Is it possible that Jesus does not keep His promise?
Is it possible that Jesus has come back, but we make mistake to understand?
If Jesus has not come back, it significantly shows that Jesus left the disciples as orphans, and it is unmatched to His promise.
I believe Jesus always keeps His promise. It means, Jesus has come back. We will try to find the supporting statement for this.
Luke 1:35 - Jesus and the Holy Spirit are one.
Acts 2:1-40 - the coming of the Holy Spirit.
John 14:17 "....
the world cannot accept, because it neither sees nor knows it. But you know it, because it remains with you, and will be in you."
Our thought likely are biased by an expectation to see the returning of Jesus in a figure as seen every day by the disciples. (We are biased by the perceived second coming of Jesus.) So, we failed to recognize that Jesus has come back, not in the appearance like the one usually seen by the disciples, but, He has come back as the Holy Spirit. We’ll see.
What Jesus means by the world in John 14:17?
As are the many words of Jesus, the word “
world” here may have multiple interpretations. I take two. The
first meaning, “world” in the meaning of people in general. The
second meaning, “world” in the meaning with physical eyes.
The second meaning means that
with our naked physical eyes we cannot see Him.
We are expected to change over from the level of physical eyes to the level of soul’s eye.
At the soul level, we may see and recognize Him. At the soul level, we may believe that Jesus has come back. What we do not realize is,
Jesus has come back as the Holy Spirit.
Now, it is the moment for us to come to the next recognition:
The Father is God; The Father and Jesus are one, Jesus is God. The Holy Spirit and Jesus are one, the Holy Spirit is God.
Further, let’s consider the validity of the following three sentences carefully:
(John 14:14) If you ask anything of me in my name, I will do it.
(John 16:23) .... I say to you, whatever you ask the Father in my name he will give you.
(John 16:26) On that day you will ask in my name, and I do not tell you that I will ask the Father for you.
A teaching like John 16:26 is to be spoken out only by the One to whom a prayer is addressed.
We know that a prayer is always addressed to God.
Look carefully how John 16:26 strengthens John 16:23 and John 14:14.
I’d like to say, the “that day (John 16:26)” has come to me; I hope it has come to you, too.
As a closing, I want to put here John 20:28, ‘Thomas answered and said to him, "My Lord and my God!"‘
Look Jesus did not refuse to be respected as the “Lord and God”. It confirms Jesus is God.
It is common to say that “Jesus is God and man.”
Now, since Jesus had return to His glory - to the glory of the true God and does not stand a man, in my understanding,
Jesus Christ is God,
and, Jesus Christ was God and man,
but, Jesus Christ is no more a man.
He taught us to address Him “Father”, and He taught us to call His name “Jesus (my name)” as He said in John 16:26, “On that day you will ask in
my name, and I do not tell you that I will ask the Father for you.”
Final conclusion:
Now, from the quotations and the narrations, I may not make a mistake to conclude and to believe that,
• The Father is God;
• The Father and Jesus Christ are one;
• The Holy Spirit and Jesus Christ are one;
• Jesus Christ and the Father and the Holy Spirit are one;
• Jesus Christ is the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit;
• Jesus Christ is God.
The doubting verses
To the believer those conclusions might be easily accepted.
However, the doubting ones might bring to us the sentences in controversy with the above conlusion, for example:
John 10:30 “I and the Father are one.”
John 14:28 “You heard me say, ‘I am going away and I am coming back to you.’ If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I.
(Matthew 28:18) Then Jesus approached and said to them, "All power in heaven and on earth has been given to me.”
Based on my believe that Jesus Christ is God, I will gave my answer.
Slowly.
An Introduction
In the Gospels, Jesus did not immediately introduce His divinity, nor did He introduce himself as the Messiah. First, Luke 1:35 introduced Jesus as the Son of God. He then taught. His teachings and miracles attracted many people. He was then honored as a teacher, then as a prophet, and later some honored Him as the Messiah. But it did not stop there, sometime later, Jesus was secretly introducing His divinity (John 10:30). "I and the Father are one." (The divinity of Jesus only appears in the Gospel by John, it does not appear in the three synoptic Gospels.)
Q: Why didn’t Jesus plainly and directly say that He is God?
A: The Work of Salvation is addressed to all regardless of their level of awareness. God knows that humanity still have to grow. Knowing the only true God is not something dictated, it is something that humanity must step up the staircase of recognition.
We see, there’s ascending recognition by people about who Jesus is.
We know, nowadays and in that days many people accepted Jesus as a man, and stop.
We know, nowadays and in that days many people accepted Jesus as a teacher, and stop.
We know, nowadays and in that days many people accepted Jesus as a prophet, and stop.
We know, nowadays and in that days many people accepted Jesus as the Messiah, the Christ, the Savior, and stop.
We know, nowadays and in that days many people accepted Jesus as the Son of God, the Son of the living God, and stop.
We know, nowadays and in that days some people accepted Jesus as God, and they have come to John 17:3.
Q: What differentiates one and the other recognition of Jesus?
Matthew 10:41 Whoever welcomes a prophet as a prophet will receive a prophet’s reward, and whoever welcomes a righteous person as a righteous person will receive a righteous person’s reward.
A: What will be the reward for welcoming the only true God as God?
Giving answer to the likely controversies
What I heard so far, the common answers to the likely controversies are based on positioning Jesus as being a human, that Jesus at that time were acting not as that He is God.
I believe Jesus had never been a mere man. He is God whenever and eternally is God. Making conclusion that Jesus had ever a mere man, or a mere Messiah, or a mere the Son of God, those brought complications.
Now, the answers below will be based on Jesus is God. Jesus was a good teacher to mankind of all level; a good teacher would not dictate but would guide the disciples to grow to understand. Jesus knew that mankind is growing in its knowledge and awareness, so it is a matter of time to understand.
The Father is greater than Jesus
John 14:28 “You heard me say, ‘I am going away and I am coming back to you.’ If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I.
Anti-thesis or controversy:
Jesus said that "the Father is greater than I", it is an evidence that Jesus is not God, because Jesus is smaller than the Father.
Pro-thesis or interpretation of Jesus' divine support:
Jesus is God. God is Unlimited Greatness. Jesus we can see is not all the Unlimited Greatness.
Jesus said “I am going to the Father” means Jesus is going back to His unlimited greatness; “for the Father is greater than I” means: “Do not imagine the Father is limited as you all see Me.”
Can the disciples imagine Jesus? Yes, they saw Him, they were able to picture Jesus.
Can the disciples imagine God? No. If they can, it must be a mistake. There is no creation capable of exploring the greatness of God. No creation can picture God.
Based on the words of Jesus, "I and the Father are one. (John 10:30) ", the disciples may imagine that God is like Jesus; the imagination is not true, Jesus they see is not the whole greatness of God.
Within the context of God's unfathomable greatness, Jesus said "for the Father is greater than I. (John 10:28) "; Jesus did not say “I am smaller than the Father.”
John 10:30 is true in the sense that Jesus and the Father are one.
John 10:28 is true in the sense of teaching to the disciples not to imagine the Father in the same limits as the visible Jesus.
Jesus goes to the Father has the meaning that, Jesus who seems limited is returning to His unlimited glory. That is the hidden meaning of "for the Father is greater than I."
It is not wrong to stay on the conclusion: Jesus Christ is God.
John 14:28 doesn’t have the meaning that Jesus is smaller than the Father. The anti-thesis has interpreted John 14:28 in the wrong way.
All Power Were Given to Jesus
(Matthew 28:18) Then Jesus approached and said to them, "All power in heaven and on earth has been given to me.”
Anti-thesis.
If Jesus is God the almighty, from where again He needed to receive the power?
Pro-thesis.
To get the answer, we shall try to answer this question: Who is the powerful before the power was given to Jesus?
It is common to say God is almighty, there is no power above.
This is not an easy thing to understand or to explain. This is related to the grain that is plucked out in the parable of the wheat and the reeds (Matthew 13: 24-30); This is related to the stone (the corners) which the builders throw away (Luke 20:17); This is related to the teaching of Jesus that John did not write in his Gospel (John 21:25); It is related to "hallowed be your name (NIV)" "let your name be kept holy (GW)" in the prayer "our Father" (Matthew 6: 9).
Shortly, contemplating on the meaning "let your name be kept holy", holy means without spot. So: Why do we put spots in God’s name?
Unconsciously man attributed the unworthiness in God’s name, such as: God punishes, God is testing or tempting, God must be feared, God records and counts our sins, etc.
God is good, God is holy, God does not deserve the unworthiness.
Should there be any unworthiness attribute, it must be removed.
We must keep God's name holy (without any spot of negative attribute). Any negative attribute is a misconception by man about God. In other words, when a man cannot remove the negative attributes, the man is really acquainted to his or her “perceived God” and not to “the only true God”.
Back to the question, "If Jesus is God the almighty, from where again He needed to receive the power?"
Q: Who is in charge the ruler of this world before it is given to Lord Jesus?
A: Before that power is given to Lord Jesus, the one in charge the ruler is “the ruler of this world”.
(John 12:31) “Now is the judgement of this world; now the ruler of this world will be driven out.”
The ruler was not Lord Jesus, the ruler was not the true God.
Before Lord Jesus came, man were unaware of "the only true God (John 17: 3)". Man knew the "shadow of God" but unaware of "the only true God". Notice how mankind grew up from animism to polytheism to monotheism and still now continue to come to know "the true God."
By being present in the flesh, through His teaching, His example, passion, death, and resurrection from the death, Jesus conquered the "shadow of God" and introduced "the only true God"; Jesus conquered the wrong mindset about God and bring knowledge about “the only true of God”.
With John 12:31, Lord Jesus says that
the ruler of the world has submitted to Him, that
all power has been given to Him. Now, the true God is not only has the power in heaven but also in power over the earth. Now the kingdom of God has come.
This gives answer to the anti-thesis.
What is the definition of God's kingdom? The kingdom of God is the kingdom where God (the only true God) reigns.
Before, mankind unknowingly glorified "the ruler of the world" who is not "the only true God", now mankind are introduced and guided to glorify “the only true God".
The kingdom of God comes not through a violent conquest. The kingdom of God comes through the awakening of consciousness of wrong mindsets and actions. Man is not forced to become a member of the Kingdom of God, man enters into the Kingdom of God through knowing the truth ( John 17:3 ).
Lord Jesus has defeated the ruler of the world, and man has the opportunity to end his suffering ( John 3:18). Because, Lord Jesus is God.