The Law is not Abrogated: What does this mean?
- Thread starter Open Heart
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yes, so if sin was in the world, then that means that there was law that was transgressed, right?
so it seems you need to revisit the line that says "before the law was given".
which simply means before it was given to israel as a nation!
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stuart lawrence
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The written law that should be obeyed unto righteousness was NOT given until Sanai.
Sin was in the world before that law was given, for man instinctively knew of Gods basic moral law.
Because of man's sinful nature/ their transgressions of what is instinctively known to them, the written law was given at sanai, it was added
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interesting!
paul said:
Romans 7:7(NKJV)
7What shall we say then? Is the law sin? Certainly not! On the contrary, I would not have known sin except through the law. For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, “You shall not covet.”
now notice what joseph says:
Genesis 39:9(NKJV)
9There is no one greater in this house than I, nor has he kept back anything from me but you, because you are his wife. How then can I do this great wickedness, and sin against God?”
how did joseph know that it was a sin against God to lie with potiphar's wife?
safe to say it wasn't "instinct"!
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stuart lawrence
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Quote the written law in genesis if sin was not instinctively known to Joseph.interesting!
paul said:
Romans 7:7(NKJV)
7What shall we say then? Is the law sin? Certainly not! On the contrary, I would not have known sin except through the law. For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, “You shall not covet.”
now notice what joseph says:
Genesis 39:9(NKJV)
9There is no one greater in this house than I, nor has he kept back anything from me but you, because you are his wife. How then can I do this great wickedness, and sin against God?”
how did joseph know that it was a sin against God to lie with potiphar's wife?
safe to say it wasn't "instinct"!
I don't think you should quote rom ch7, I doubt you understand that chapter
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stuart lawrence
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You haven't quoted the written law from Genesis. If you cannot, how did Joseph know what sin was?i understand that paul said he didn't know what sin was until the commandment told him!
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stuart lawrence
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O
There is a difference once the written law was given. But I think we had better leave that there
As I said, you are out of your depth with Paul.i understand that paul said he didn't know what sin was until the commandment told him!
There is a difference once the written law was given. But I think we had better leave that there
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stuart lawrence
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As you cannot properly respond to the question, I will leave it at that
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stuart lawrence
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I will give you a chance to prove me wrong.of course i don't.
Why are sinfull passions aroused in people by the law if they live under it?
Rom7:5
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it starts with you answering my question about joseph!
not to mention that i've shown where the bible makes distinction to the law, of which you did not address!
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- Nov 21, 2008
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The term "under the LAW" as used in Romans 3:19-20 means "under condemnation of the law" --
Those who "take God's name in vain" are condemned as sinners by that law -- for example.
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stuart lawrence
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Oh you had it explaIned to you. TBH I feared serious debte would be pointless due to your exuberance in simply trying to show another was committing error. It's not very mature. Hence I knew you could not respond to the Question concerning rom ch5
Bye
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stuart lawrence
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You are right. The term under the law men's under the condemnation of the law.
As you responded to the post would you like to respond to the question concerning rom7:5
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