I am aware of this when it comes to things like idioms. But are you saying this is consistently the case and particularly in reference to Greek? It often appears to be fairly cut and dried to me.
It is often pretty easy to look at a parsed text and understand how the translator arrived at an English translation even when one does not fully understand the text. Typically people fill in the missing informational gap with the understanding already provided in the English translation. The problem is that sometimes the translation isn't quite so easy to understand when a parsed text is compared to an English translation, and in those instances some seem to believe that they can correct the translators "mistake."
Working from an Greek or Hebrew text to arrive at an English translation is much more difficult because one must understand verb tense, mood, person, number, noun declensions, particles, etc..., and understand how context and grammatical structure can affect meaning. For those who do not know the language well, it is wise to assume that when something looks wrong, it is far more likely a lack of understanding on my part than it is a mistake on the translators part. Without a very deep understanding of the language, one should not consider introducing new ideas in the text that are not already apparent in a good English translation or in a reputable commentary.
That's very interesting. Thanks for sharing it. If you have questions yourself about specific verses or passages, do you have someone yourself that you go to, or do you read? If so, do you read both Hebrew and Greek, or mostly Hebrew?
I studied Greek (1 year), Hebrew (5 years), and Aramaic (1 year) in the university. I am far more competent in Hebrew because of the time I have spent studying it and my regular use of it. Next, would be Aramaic, and last Greek. While I read from all three languages pretty regularly, I recognize my shortcomings in both Greek and Aramaic, and always consult those I know who are much stronger with these languages, or commentaries written by those who know these languages well. Even when I am reading Hebrew, I still approach any text that appears different to me with a lot of caution, and look at the opinion of other scholars before jumping to conclusions.
Point granted. I think my assertion was that, in spite of present scholarship, there is still something sorely lacking, so limiting our understanding to only those "qualified" would in essence be to settle for less than perfect. But I agree that you don't simply throw caution to the wind. Proper rules of translation should always be adhered to.
Agreed.
Again something comes to mind. I've seen numerous translations where words in the Greek are simply omitted, and for no apparent reason except they don't draw a connection by translating a conjunction out. But I suppose that's another discussion for another time.
Words are often omitted in translation, and words are often inserted into English (or French, German, etc..) translations that are not in the original. Such choices are expected.
In Greek for example the definite article "the" is used far more often than it is in English, and is very often omitted in translation. For example, in Greek the article is often used with proper names i.e. "the David" i.e. καὶ ἐνέδυσεν Σαουλ τὸν Δαυιδ (1 Sam. 17:38) "and saul clothed THE David." In English the definite article is not included. In Hebrew the particle את serves as a grammatical marker indicating a direct definite object; it is never translated in English. Conjunctions are used quite differently in Hebrew and Greek, and frequently omitted (or changed) in English. An interesting example from Hosea 1:6 is "כי־נשׂא אשׂא להם" lit. "for to carry, I will carry to them." In Hebrew the infinitive followed by a conjugated form is a way to added emphasis, and "to carry someone" is an idiom for "forgive." English renderings accurately communicate this as "that I should at all forgive them." Words like "at all, surely, certainly, etc.." are added to the text to demonstrate the emphatic because an infinitive followed by a conjugated verb in English does not indicate emphasis. Emphatics like this are quite common in Hebrew and English translations almost always add words that indicate emphasis in English.