Romans 9, how do we know who is to be destroyed

sdowney717

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If that helps you sleep better at night...

“knowing this first of all, that scoffers will come in the last days with scoffing, following their own sinful desires. They will say, "Where is the promise of his coming? For ever since the fathers fell asleep, all things are continuing as they were from the beginning of creation."”
‭‭2 Peter‬ ‭3:3-4‬ ‭ESV‬‬

Peter is making an argument against those who in the last days would scoff at the idea of Christ's coming by saying nothing has ever changed and perhaps he had forgotten.

Then that is when he says 1 day is as 1,000 years to the LORD. Because God has no concept of time, he is not obligated to do things on our timeline.

He is delaying the return of Christ because he wants ALL TO COME TO REPENTANCE. So that none should perish because God wants no one to perish! Ezekiel 18:32. Believers are already in a state of repentance. There is no chance this verse or even passage is speaking of those in Christ already.

Really people, we need to start reading entire contexts before we just lob holy hand grenades at people with no idea what we are talking about.

You fail to acknowledge the God foreknowing and the elect part of doctrine, which leads us to being of the saved, which is the main and opening theme of His letters. Peter is not writing to the world that God knows will never repent and believe.

You seem to be in the camp of the heretical open theism movement.
Open Theism is the thesis that, because God loves us and desires that we freely choose to reciprocate His love, He has made His knowledge of, and plans for, the future conditional upon our actions. Though omniscient, God does not know what we will freely do in the future.

Our salvation is of God and Christ who wills those who will know Him, it is not of you and your abilities.

So many people pay no attention to Christ's words, perhaps due to they have no enlightenment in their soul yet, cause they think it is all about themselves spiritual matters.

22 All things have been delivered to Me by My Father, and no one knows who the Son is except the Father, and who the Father is except the Son, and the one to whom the Son wills to reveal Him.
 
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shakewell

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If God made one to sin,
He didn't.
21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
God makes a vessel "unto dishonor" not "to sin".

how can God then condemn them to destruction?
Because prior to being made into a vessel of wrath they spurned His longsuffering by not seeking righteousness by faith, but as it were by the works of the law.
22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
 
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bling

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19 You will say to me then, “Why does he still find fault? For who has ever resisted his will?” 20 But who indeed are you—a mere human being—to talk back to God? Does what is molded say to the molder,Why have you made me like this?” 21 Has the potter no right to make from the same lump of clay one vessel for special use and another for ordinary use? 22 But what if God, willing to demonstrate his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience the objects of wrath prepared for destruction? 23 And what if he is willing to make known the wealth of his glory on the objects of mercy that he has prepared beforehand for glory— 24 even us, whom he has called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles?

If God made one to sin, how can God then condemn them to destruction?

Romans 9

Paul uses two teaching methods throughout Romans even secular philosophy classes will use Romans as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method goes beyond just a general diatribe and follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments in the Psalms and throughout the Old Testament, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon”.

The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.

The main question (a diatribe question) in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9: 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!

This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born, but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate and giving the opposition the first shot as done in all diatribes).

Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau? Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?

If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?

This is the issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.

Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”

Who is the “one of you” is this Jewish Christian (elect) or Gentile Christian (elect) or is this “non-elect” individual (this “letter” being written to Christians and not non-Christians)?

Can Jews say they cannot be blamed for failing in their honored position or would it be the Gentiles that would say they cannot be blamed since they were not in the honored position?

Is it really significant when it comes to what really counts, if you are born a gentile or Jew in first century Rome?

Are there issues and problems with being a first century Jew and was this a problem for Paul?

The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison.

How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9: 30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.

Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the born Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.

Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11: 11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!

The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.

If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11: 13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.





Rm 9: 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?

This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start by the Potter “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is a great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since they left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potters signature and He would want it destroyed.

To understand this is Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same Greek words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul even points out the common can become the honored vessel.
 
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Ron Gurley

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OP: Q1: "If God "made one to "sin"",

Q2: how can God then "condemn them to destruction"? "

A1: FALSE PREMISE:

a. ALL of God's Creation was perfectly "GOOD". Genesis chapters 1+ 2

b. Mankind (A&E) was created in the TRI-UNE GOD's SPIRITUAL IMAGE.
{God has no BODY (sarx/soma) nor SOUL (psyche)}

Genesis 1:26a (NASB)
26 Then God (elohim=PLURAL) said, “Let Us make man in Our (spiritual) image, according to Our likeness;(character)

c. God ALLOWED (He is SOVREIGN/ALL everything) the spiritual GIFT of "free will". After the first disobedience of A&E (Genesis 3), all of Mankind was born with an innate nature to turn away from God and turn toward self. (aka "SIN NATURE")

c1: "FREE WILL"
"Definition of Free Will":
"ability to make CHOICES without any prior prejudice, inclination, or disposition,
AND specifically that these "free will" choices are not ultimately/IRREVOCABLY "pre-destined" by God.

God FORE-KNOWS. God does NOT PRE-DESTINE.

c2: "SIN NATURE "

SEE: Jesus on the "heart of Man"... Matthew 15:15-20

"SIN NATURE" DEFINITION:
the natural-born innate capacity and inclination to do / not do those things that can in no way
commend Man and his "works" to God....
This natural tendency is SPIRITUALLY changed by the SALVATION / REDEMPTION EVENT, BUT it still rears its ugly head in the BODY / SOUL combo ("flesh") during the SANCTIFICATION PROCESS.

A2:
1. GOD is perfectly LOVING/MERCIFUL/GRACEFUL

2. GOD is perfectly JUST / FAIR with repect to Mankind. He renders perfect JUDGMENTS.

3. BOTH ARE TRUE!!
God LOVES sinners. God HATES sin.

4. God spiritually Draws/Calls ALL spirits of All Men to a spiritual DECISION / CHOICE:
ACCEPT unto SALVATION.
REJECT unto CONDEMNATION

Mankind chooses whether they want to be "children of God"...or...NOT.

Deuteronomy 30:19
I call heaven and earth to witness against you today, that I have set before you life and death, the blessing and the curse. So CHOOSE LIFE in order that you may live, you and your descendants,

1 Chronicles 28:9...KING David to wise son
“As for you, my son Solomon,
know the God of your father, and serve Him with a whole heart and a willing mind;
for the Lord searches all hearts, and understands every intent of the thoughts.
If you seek Him, He will let you find Him;
BUT if you forsake Him, He will reject you forever.

John 3:36...John the Baptizer on Jesus: CHOOSE
1. He who believes in the Son has "eternal life"; (BELIEVER)
but
2.he who does not obey (TO BELIEVE IN!) the Son will not see life,
but the wrath of God abides on him.” (UN-BELIEVER)

John 1
11 He came to that which was His own, but His own did NOT receive Him.
12 Yet to all who DID receive him,
to those who BELIEVED in his name, he gave the right to become "children of God"
— 13 children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but "born of God"
 
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