Mary's death was a feast day celebrated in the liturgy both East and West. That is absolutely doctrinal
Nice strawman. Did Aquinas oppose the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception or not?
No. His quote is on the link you ignored.
: ‘(Who) hath made us fit ministers of the New Testament.’ Now the Blessed Virgin was chosen by God to be His Mother. Therefore there can be no doubt that God, by His grace, made her worthy of that office, according to the words spoken to her by the angel (Lk. 1:30
,31
): ‘Thou hast found grace with God: behold thou shalt conceive,’ etc. But she would not have been worthy to be the Mother of God, if she had ever sinned. First, because the honor of the parents reflects on the child, according to Prov. 17:6
: ‘The glory of children are their fathers’: and consequently, on the other hand, the Mother’s shame would have reflected on her Son. Secondly, because of the singular affinity between her and Christ, who took flesh from her: and it is written (2 Cor. 6:15
): ‘What concord hath Christ with Belial?’ Thirdly, because of the singular manner in which the Son of God, who is the ‘Divine Wisdom’ (1 Cor. 1:24
) dwelt in her, not only in her soul but in her womb. And it is written (Wis. 1:4
): ‘Wisdom will not enter into a malicious soul, nor dwell in a body subject to sins.’
) is fulfilled: ‘Thou art all fair, O my love, and there is not a spot in thee,’ etc. “
Aquinas does not anywhere here claim that Mary was immaculately conceived, he only states that Mary had not commited any sins. My comment was in regards to you quoting Aquinas in a post defending the Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception, when Aquinas himself opposed the doctrine. You then responded with the link to Aquinas which says nothing about the Immaculate Conception, only Mary's personal sinlessness. That is most definitely a strawman as I have posted nothing against Mary's sinlessness.No. His quote is on the link you ignored.
Here is what Aquinas said (Summa Theologiae III:27:4):
“I answer that, God so prepares and endows those, whom He chooses for some particular office, that they are rendered capable of fulfilling it, according to 2 Cor. 3:6
“We must therefore confess simply that the Blessed Virgin committed no actual sin, neither mortal nor venial; so that what is written (Cant 4:7
You either don't know what a straw man fallacy is, or you have never read Aquinas, repeating anti-Catholic nonsense, or you have read Aquinas and are being deceptive. Then you accuse me of making a straw man.
Where do you think the Bible came from? A magisterial of men who, under the guidance of the Holy Spirit, developed the canon. That's where the Bible came from. Since this process took 4 centuries, it would have impossible to accomplish without some kind of succession of leadership.
Thomas is the Church’s greatest scholar, but he is still only human. We must also remember that Thomas was only struggling with when Mary was sanctified, not if she was. He still held that Mary was freed from the stain of original sin and that she remained sinless her entire life. Some people take Thomas' denial of sanctification at the moment of conception to mean that he thought Mary was a sinner like the rest of us. But, this is a gross distortion of what Thomas believed.
Once again. Did Thomas Aquinas oppose the doctine of the immaculate conception or not? I only ask that you clarify this because you earlier accused me of being deceptive, so either demonstrate that I was being deceptive or retract the accusation.
