How come good Friday is only two days from Easter Sunday?

AFrazier

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The day the Passover must be killed is the 14th. The first day of ULB is the 15th. Not the same day...
So are you saying that leaven can still be possessed on the 14th? Perhaps you should start using the acronym FOULB, because the 15th is the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread. The 14th is the first day of Unleavened Bread. That's when it had to be removed and burned. You can't sacrifice the passover on the 14th while there is still leaven.

But regardless, it was "the day the passover must be killed" prior to the last supper. Per your answer, that's the 14th. So what date does that put the last supper according to that scripture?
 
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Gerhard Ebersoehn

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And "the first day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed" is what date again? Cause that date is the afternoon preceding the last supper, when two of the disciples made ready the passover. It was also the date of the day before the crucifixion.

How does your explanation fit within this?

You also implicitly addressed me. I do on my part answer therefore...

"The first day, day of unleaven, when the passover must be killed" is what date again? "The very head first day"..."on the fourteenth day of the First Month"..."ye shall REMOVE leaven". Exodus 12:15=Mark 14:12,17=Matthew 26:17,20=Luke 22:7,14=John 13:1,30=1Corinthians 11:23.
Because this date is "the evening", "the hour", preceding the Last Supper, after two of the disciples had made ready the passover-preparations. It was indeed the date of "That Self-Same Day" of the crucifixion after, "the third hour" (9a.m.), "the Preparation-of-the-Passover". John 19:14.
 
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Gerhard Ebersoehn

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Because THAT weekly Sabbath was also a high day...the 15th.

No! "Because the day was great of THAT sabbath" which was the 15th, the day after "the fourteenth day of the First Month" <<the day the Passover must be killed>>.
 
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Gerhard Ebersoehn

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And "the first day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed" is what date again? Cause that date is the afternoon preceding the last supper, when two of the disciples made ready the passover. It was also the date of the day before the crucifixion.

How does your explanation fit within this?

How many times more?
There is no text, "the first day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed". That is a contradiction in terms as well as in facts. But "the first day of unleaven when the passover must be killed", is what date again? It is "the fourteenth day of the First Month", the passover's "head and first, first day ye shall remove leaven." Exodus 12:15 and 8. Because that date was "the evening... the hour" preceding the Last Supper, after two of the disciples had made ready the passover preparations. It was indeed the date of the day of, the crucifixion, said to be "the Preparation-of-the-Passover". John 19:14.

How does your explanation fit within this?
 
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Gerhard Ebersoehn

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The 14th is the first day of Unleavened Bread. That's when it had to be removed and burned. You can't sacrifice the passover on the 14th while there is still leaven.

Exactly. Therefore, the 14th is "the first day of Unleaven"—“the head first day” of passover; not the first of seven days <<of Unleavened Bread>> which was the second day of passover. <<You can't sacrifice the passover on the 14th while there is still leaven>> SURE!
 
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ImAHebrew

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Anyone got an OLD TESTAMENT scripture reference for when the lamb must be killed?
Shalom 1stcenturylady, good to see you. You know, when I was being held in confinement, I did tell the powers that be that you were one I respected, [Staff edit]. Anyway, good to have you here.

The "appointed time/season" for killing the Passover according to the Old Covenant is at the setting of or the going down of the sun on the 14th day of the 1st month:

Leviticus 23:5 In the fourteenth [day] of the first month at even [is] Yahweh's passover.

Numbers 28:16 And in the fourteenth day of the first month [is] the passover of Yahweh.

Numbers 9:2-3 Let the children of Israel also keep the passover at it's appointed season. In the fourteenth day of this month, at even, ye shall keep it in it's appointed season: according to all the rites of it, and according to all the ceremonies thereof, shall ye keep it.

Numbers 9:13 But the man that [is] clean, and is not in a journey, and forbeareth to keep the passover, even the same soul shall be cut off from among his people: because he brought not the offering of Yahweh in it's appointed season, that man shall bear the sin.

So you can see here 1stcenturylady, the appointed time of killing the lamb must be "at even" on the 14th day of the 1st month, according to the Old Covenant, and IF one does not bring this offering at it's appointed time/season, then one shall bear the consequences of their sin. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.
 
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ImAHebrew

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[Staff edit].

Shalom Gerhard, let's try to make some sense. The Jews did not want the bodies on the cross on the Sabbath day, right?

John 19:31 The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and [that] they might be taken away.

Alright, so this "preparation" which was BEFORE the beginning of the sabbath day, was the time in which the JEWS go to Pilate to make sure that those who were being crucified, would die BEFORE the Sabbath, so their bodies could be taken away, and not remain on the cross on the Sabbath. That was the purpose of breaking their legs, as it would bring about almost immediate death "by suffocation" because they would not be able to lift themselves up to take a breath. Wasn't that a simple explanation, and one that make a great deal of sense? And then when you couple that explanation with John 19:42:

John 19:42 There laid they Yeshua therefore because of the Jews’ preparation [day]; for the tomb was nigh at hand.

Does not this show that Joseph and Nicodemus, BECAUSE it was STILL the Jew's PREPARATION (which was spoken about back in John 19:31), that they were hurried, because the Sabbath was imminent, so they LAID Yeshua's body in the tomb that was "nigh at hand." How about that, it all worked out to where they were able to get Yeshua laid in the tomb BEFORE the Sabbath day began, because the tomb was NEARBY. That Sabbath day, was the High Day Sabbath of the 1st Day of Unleavened Bread (the 15th day of the 1st month). It was NOT the weekly Sabbath as you assume. Hopefully Gerhard, you will be able to make some proper sense here. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.
 
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ImAHebrew

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[Staff edit]. The day which followed Yeshua's suffering and death (on the 14th), was the High Day Sabbath of the 15th day of the 1st month, the 1st Feast Day of ULB. This High Day Sabbath had a preparation day BEFORE it (preparation of the Passover - John 19:14), and this is the Jews preparation which is spoken about in John 19:31 and John 19:42. It is NOT the Jews' preparation for the weekly Sabbath, which would come AFTER the High Day Sabbath ends on Thursday evening. You need to get your days and facts straight here Gerhard, and then we will agree. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.
 
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ImAHebrew

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And "the first day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed" is what date again? Cause that date is the afternoon preceding the last supper, when two of the disciples made ready the passover. It was also the date of the day before the crucifixion.

How does your explanation fit within this?
Shalom AFraizer, yes, there is a conflict between the date of the synoptic Gospels and John for the killing of the Passover. I know you have tried to deflect John's rather clear indication that the day of Yeshua's death was the Passover, according to the Old Covenant. And according to the Old Covenant, the Passover had to be offered at it's appointed time. I know you feel the Passover was the day prior to Yeshua's suffering and death by reading the very clear accounts of Matthew, Mark, and Luke, but if you are correct, then The Passover Lamb was offered on the 15th day of the 1st month, not at the time appointed by the Old Covenant, the 14th day of the 1st month. There is a logical and correct explanation for this disparity, and hopefully, we will be able to bring it together. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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Shalom Yeshua HaDerekh, I realize that His crucifixion was not at the time of John 7:37. But John 7:37 speaks of a "megas" day. It was a High Day, the Last day of the Feast of Tabernacles, and it was a "megas" day ALL BY ITSELF. It didn't need a weekly Sabbath for it to be a "megas" day, as you contend the 1st Day of Unleavened Bread needed. In John 19:31, the High Day (megas day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread) was a Sabbath, ALL BY ITSELF, it did NOT need to fall on the weekly Sabbath for it to be a "megas" day Sabbath. Do you not agree? Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.

THE Sabbath is the 7th day of the week. A high day CAN be on a Sabbath day.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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But regardless, it was "the day the passover must be killed" prior to the last supper. Per your answer, that's the 14th. So what date does that put the last supper according to that scripture?

On the 14th.
 
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No! "Because the day was great of THAT sabbath" which was the 15th, the day after "the fourteenth day of the First Month" <<the day the Passover must be killed>>.

The 14th was on FRIDAY, the day Adam was created and the day the 2nd Adam was put to death. Sunday was the 3rd day, the day the 2nd Adam rose from the dead...Yeshua! Sunday is the third day after man’s creation (since man was created on Friday).
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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No! "Because the day was great of THAT sabbath" which was the 15th, the day after "the fourteenth day of the First Month" <<the day the Passover must be killed>>.

The day was great of that particular weekly Sabbath (the 15th). It was not just a regular weekly Sabbath but it was also a feast day.
 
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AFrazier

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How many times more?
There is no text, "the first day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed". That is a contradiction in terms as well as in facts. But "the first day of unleaven when the passover must be killed", is what date again? It is "the fourteenth day of the First Month", the passover's "head and first, first day ye shall remove leaven." Exodus 12:15 and 8. Because that date was "the evening... the hour" preceding the Last Supper, after two of the disciples had made ready the passover preparations. It was indeed the date of the day of, the crucifixion, said to be "the Preparation-of-the-Passover". John 19:14.

How does your explanation fit within this?
I gave my explanation for this ages ago.
 
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AFrazier

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Shalom AFraizer, yes, there is a conflict between the date of the synoptic Gospels and John for the killing of the Passover.
This is one of the issues I've been trying to address. I don't believe there is a conflict. I believe that all four gospel authors are telling the same story, and that the nomenclature being used is creating confusion. John and the Synoptics do not contradict each other, which is essentially what you're conceding to in saying that "there is a conflict between the date of the synoptic Gospels and John for the killing of the Passover."

I know you have tried to deflect John's rather clear indication that the day of Yeshua's death was the Passover, according to the Old Covenant. And according to the Old Covenant, the Passover had to be offered at it's appointed time.
Two points here:

1) I haven't deflected John's account. I gave answer to it already. a) The "preparation of the Passover" is just Friday of Passover week. b) The "passover" the priests wanted to eat, preventing them from entering Pilate's judgement hall, was the hagigah, or passover offering, which was offered and eaten on the 15th. It is conspicuously called the "paska" in the Talmud. c) There was no "high Sabbath," but only a high day on that Sabbath.

2) The Old Covenant does not say that Jesus died on the passover. You are trying to apply a theological interpretation to a physical and historical event. Please take note from Hebrews that Jesus, besides being our passover, also fulfilled all the duties of the High Priest for the Day of Atonement, offering himself to enter the heavenly holy of holies by the sacrifice of himself, to make intercession for us. Just as he was also the scapegoat, as explained in another post. Don't put so much emphasis on the specific date. Spiritually, he was more than just the Passover, and the date clearly didn't matter for the other fulfillments. The Day of Atonement wasn't for another six months.

I know you feel the Passover was the day prior to Yeshua's suffering and death by reading the very clear accounts of Matthew, Mark, and Luke, but if you are correct, then The Passover Lamb was offered on the 15th day of the 1st month, not at the time appointed by the Old Covenant, the 14th day of the 1st month.
No. The Passover lamb was sacrificed on the 14th. JESUS died on the 15th. Theological interpretation does not trump black and white text.

There is a logical and correct explanation for this disparity, and hopefully, we will be able to bring it together. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.
There are three ways to look at it. Either 1) John and the Synoptics disagree, leaving us with a glaring contradiction in the Bible, 2) the Synoptics harmonize with a Nisan 13th last supper and Nisan 14th crucifixion, which they simply do not, or 3) John harmonizes with a Nisan 14th last supper and Nisan 15th crucifixion, for which there is a plausible, documented, and competent explanation.

You have to choose. If you think the gospels contradict each other, then there's not much else I can say. If you think the Synoptics harmonize with John, then you have to demonstrate, credibly, how the disciples made ready the passover on the 13th, how the 13th was the first day of unleavened bread (not the feast of unleavened bread), and how the passover was slain on the 13th, in order to accommodate Jesus being killed the next day on the 14th. I can tell you now that it can't be done credibly. OR, you can get on board the truth train and recognize that John can be harmonized with the Synoptics, as explained in one of the paragraphs above.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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...how the passover was slain on the 13th, in order to accommodate Jesus being killed the next day on the 14th.

There was NO mention of any lamb at the last supper. Yeshua was to be that lamb so no lamb was needed at that meal.
 
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