Which Bible Version is closest to the original Hebrew and Greek Texts?

Open Heart

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I think the New American Bible (NAB) is the best. As a Jewish Christian, I'm very particular about the translations from the Hebrew. Christian translators tend to translate with an agenda -- they try to make certain verses more "messianic prophecy" than the texts really supports. IMHO if it's a messianic prophecy, it will show if you translate it true to the text.

Using the NAB helps me when I deal with Jewish counter-missionaries. Because I'm a Jew who is a Catholic, my fellow Jews are always trying to get me to come over to Judaism. One of the big tactics is to show me how terrible my Bible translation is. They give me one verse after another, but when I get there, it's not the horrible translation they expected, but true to the Hebrew. They end up surprised and a bit impressed that the NAB translators would have that much integrity. For example, the NAB translates Isaiah 7:14 as "A MAIDEN shall conceive." Most other Christian translations say "virgin" to match what it says in the gospels, even though that's not what it says in the Hebrew.
 
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Open Heart

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It's a word for word transliteration.
I think you mean translation, not transliteration. Transliteration means writing Elohim instead of אלהים‎. Translation word for word means writing God for אלהים‎.
 
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Unix

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The AMG Edition of NASB77 is pretty decent for this purpose, I recommended it so I gave away a copy to someone last Year (to a young girl who was my girlfriend at the time, we practised chastity) who was used to reading the KJV NT. Does anyone here use this version? I'm not aware of an equally formal equivalent version for the Deuterocanonicals though, but I use the 1989 NRSV for Sirach.
I've used the RSV more so far (not -CE or -2CE), because it wasn't until recently that I discovered the NASB77 and a Year ago I got a Bible Study software copy of the latter.
The count of the total English vocabulary in the RSV is good, words that I wouldn't want to fade away are being used.
For Revelation I've recently started using the 1995 Anglicised NRSV, there's not that much difference to the RSV.
 
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LostMarbels

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I am a KJV only guy myself. Why? Other Versions have inconsistencies that lead to confusion, and differnt meanings. If you follow the 'genealogy' of the KJV you find an exact verbatim translation from between 160 AD to current day.

Also, most of today's Bibles are transliterations, not direct translations.

However, the problem with translation is that there is not always equivalent text from one language to another. We don’t just have different words; we have different sentence structures, different figures of speech, and some words which have no match in a different language or which carry different connotations and nuances.

Sometimes, these difficulties can be solved by paraphrasing the text. Other times translators will use a similar term and then expand the text to include a definition within it. But in many cases, when translators come across a word with no exact English equivalent, they will just skip translating that word entirely.

This is transliteration. A translator takes a word in one language, adjusts it a little to make it look and sound more like another language, and then places it in with the rest of the text in that other language. So in biblical translation, a translator would take, for example, a Greek word and adjust it to fit in in our character set, usually changing the pronunciation a bit to make it sound more like English.

So basically, when someone transliterated the bible they are literally attributing definitions to new words that are either close to, or no where near the original intended meaning. The other thing is that the words become bleached. Lets take for an example from me where it is written that someone drank a glass of wine.

The original says: The man devoured the goblet with the vigor of indignation, vexed by his circumstance.

A transliteration:The man gulped the wine in resentment, because he was annoyed by what was going on.

The exact same situation, but a huge difference in presentation, context, and meaning.

In the first example the man forcefully in anger, (provoked by what is perceived as unfair treatment) quickly or hungrily consumes the wine; because he is annoyed, frustrated, and worried about a very difficult situation. We actualy see this man's emotional, and mental state. He is irate. We see this because of how his temper affected the force in which he angrily drank the wine. Just simply because of the word vexed, we see this man is on an emotionally ran rollercoaster. Put it together and we see this man responds to the current situation with intense anger, and alcohol. Paints a picture. Now without context we cannot assume any further.

In the second, the man quickly drinks the wine in bitterness, because he is annoyed by his current situation. In this example I can even see this guy as depressed, or sullen. Almost as a whoe is me deal. Or I can see someone that tries to find a solution at the bottom of a bottle. I do not see an emotionally charged rage that I do as in the first example. Completely differnt picture. However, the words I used are synonymous to the original.
 
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One feature of biblegateway.com that I like is that you can compare many translations of a verse with one click. I did a comparison of Matt 17:15. Some versions of the verse say the boy was an epileptic or he had seizures, while others say he was a lunatic, and others (TLB) say he is mentally deranged and in great trouble. The NLV says he is very sick and at times loses the use of his mind. The way we understand depends on the right translation.
 
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Open Heart

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One feature of biblegateway.com that I like is that you can compare many translations of a verse with one click. I did a comparison of Matt 17:15. Some versions of the verse say the boy was an epileptic or he had seizures, while others say he was a lunatic, and others (TLB) say he is mentally deranged and in great trouble. The NLV says he is very sick and at times loses the use of his mind. The way we understand depends on the right translation.
Well, the problem is, there is the right translation, and then there is the right understanding. There was no concept of mental illness at that time, and epilepsy was completely unknown. Something like siezures or schizophrenia were competely misunderstood.
 
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I am a KJV only guy myself. Why? Other Versions have inconsistencies that lead to confusion, and differnt meanings. If you follow the 'genealogy' of the KJV you find an exact verbatim translation from between 160 AD to current day.

Also, most of today's Bibles are transliterations, not direct translations.
Wow . . . that was certainly painful to read.
As much as each and every translation of the Bible will contain often unavoidable inconsistencies, of any of the more serious attempts at Bible translation, I would say that the KJV has probably the worst pedigree when it comes to reflecting the original autographs.
 
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pescador

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I am a KJV only guy myself. Why? Other Versions have inconsistencies that lead to confusion, and differnt meanings. If you follow the 'genealogy' of the KJV you find an exact verbatim translation from between 160 AD to current day.

Also, most of today's Bibles are transliterations, not direct translations.

However, the problem with translation is that there is not always equivalent text from one language to another. We don’t just have different words; we have different sentence structures, different figures of speech, and some words which have no match in a different language or which carry different connotations and nuances.

Sometimes, these difficulties can be solved by paraphrasing the text. Other times translators will use a similar term and then expand the text to include a definition within it. But in many cases, when translators come across a word with no exact English equivalent, they will just skip translating that word entirely.

This is transliteration. A translator takes a word in one language, adjusts it a little to make it look and sound more like another language, and then places it in with the rest of the text in that other language. So in biblical translation, a translator would take, for example, a Greek word and adjust it to fit in in our character set, usually changing the pronunciation a bit to make it sound more like English.

So basically, when someone transliterated the bible they are literally attributing definitions to new words that are either close to, or no where near the original intended meaning. The other thing is that the words become bleached. Lets take for an example from me where it is written that someone drank a glass of wine.

The original says: The man devoured the goblet with the vigor of indignation, vexed by his circumstance.

A transliteration:The man gulped the wine in resentment, because he was annoyed by what was going on.

The exact same situation, but a huge difference in presentation, context, and meaning.

In the first example the man forcefully in anger, (provoked by what is perceived as unfair treatment) quickly or hungrily consumes the wine; because he is annoyed, frustrated, and worried about a very difficult situation. We actualy see this man's emotional, and mental state. He is irate. We see this because of how his temper affected the force in which he angrily drank the wine. Just simply because of the word vexed, we see this man is on an emotionally ran rollercoaster. Put it together and we see this man responds to the current situation with intense anger, and alcohol. Paints a picture. Now without context we cannot assume any further.

In the second, the man quickly drinks the wine in bitterness, because he is annoyed by his current situation. In this example I can even see this guy as depressed, or sullen. Almost as a whoe is me deal. Or I can see someone that tries to find a solution at the bottom of a bottle. I do not see an emotionally charged rage that I do as in the first example. Completely differnt picture. However, the words I used are synonymous to the original.

"The man devoured the goblet with the vigor of indignation, vexed by his circumstance." How does a man devour a goblet? Grind it up into powder, put ii in solution, then drink it? Ugh!

Thank God that modern translations put the Scriptures into clearly-understandable English! There is so much content in ancient translations such as the KJV that is difficult to understand and is therefore misleading, even to intelligent people.
 
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Kiwi Christian

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WHICH original Hebrew and Greek, though?
 

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Kiwi Christian

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Wow . . . that was certainly painful to read.
As much as each and every translation of the Bible will contain often unavoidable inconsistencies, of any of the more serious attempts at Bible translation, I would say that the KJV has probably the worst pedigree when it comes to reflecting the original autographs.

Have YOU studied the history of YOUR Bible?
 
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The KJV is best IMO because there are so many tools that work with it to help one get back to the original languages like the Strong's and Thayer's concordances and dictionaries. However, I use as many translations as I can because that can also be helpful. E-sword.com has a free one with lots of add-ons. Biblesoft is also good but it is not free unless someone gives it to you.

Amen!

Also, the KJV is one of the only translations from the ANTIOCH textline where the Christians were first called Christians.
 
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Which Bible Version is closest to the original Hebrew and Greek Texts?

Taking the question literally, the version that is closest to the original would be a Hebrew/Greek interlinear Bible. In an English translation, the Hebrew and Greek words appear above the English words. However, this results in awkwardly broken English, which is why we have so many translations to make sense of it. Also, there are no "original" Greek Texts. There are copies of copies of the original texts, most notably are the Majority Text, the Critical Text, and the Received Text. The arguments for or against which of these Texts are the actual words written by the Apostles or their scribes will make you pull your hair out if you choose to search online for which is most reliable. What is amazing in the thousands of full and fragmented pieces of scripture that have been collected is that about 98% of all of these pieces are identical even though they have been re-written by hand for centuries. And, many if not most of the differences are typographical errors such as punctuation marks that do not change the meaning of the words. Some texts have additional verses which do not show up in the other texts. The KJV was based upon the Received Text (Textus Receptus). Most modern Bible versions are based upon the Critical Text, and many include footnotes regarding differences in versions or bracket verses that are included in the Received Text but is omitted in the Critical Text. The NASB has been known to be one of the closest in wording to the Greek and Hebrew translations into English, because they included less paraphrasing and less adjectives in describing phrases. This may be more helpful for biblical students that desire to come to their own conclusions as to the meaning of particular scripture verses. Other versions add more words (or sentences such as in the Amplified version) to the verses to help express the meaning to readers. You will pull your hair out reading online arguments as to which versions are more heretical than others. Here are some things I consider when deciding on a Bible for friends and family:

First, let me mention the outstanding online Bible resource, www.biblegateway.com, which allows you to compare the many different versions regarding the same scripture verses. Another website allows you to view a single verse on all the versions on a single webpage: biblehub.com/genesis/1-1.htm

If a person grew up singing hymns written in old English, and memorized prayers in the old English of the KJV, the person may want to look at the differences in Psalm 23 (the Lord is my Shepherd...). The closest modern versions which do not change the wording drastically are the NKJV and the ESV. That alone may sway a person's decision, although it does not mean the versions are closer to the original Greek. Acts 7:45 in the KJV has Jesus leading their ancestors instead of Joshua. The NKJV prints the name as Joshua. This would be confusing for a new Christian reading the verse, not knowing that Joshua and Jesus are the same name in Hebrew to Greek. 1 John 5:6-8 adds the "Trinity" in verse 7 in some versions, some have a footnote explaining the controversy of this addition, and others have it bracketed. A good modern version probably should have some type of reference or explanation, otherwise it would not be "closest" to one of the three Texts. If you believe that the original Greek texts in Psalm 34:20 meant that the bones that are not broken is a messianic prophesy of Jesus, then you may want to make sure your version did not neutralize the gender in this verse and change "his bones" to "their bones". In John 14:23, I know of many who have a problem with gender neutral versions in that changing "him" to "them" changes the meaning in Jesus' expression of a personal relationship with God as opposed to God loving the Christian church. Some versions use Yahweh more often than others such as in Psalm 83:18 in the Holman HCSB (the newer version CSB has far fewer instances of substituting Yahweh for LORD), which makes one have to consider whether that was what was intended in the original Greek. Any Bible scholar will be familiar with the "Pericope Adulterae" in John 7:53-8:11, which is not found in most of the early Greek Gospel manuscripts. This does not mean that earlier manuscripts were more accurate to the original written texts, but a modern version should footnote or bracket these verses so that a reader can ask for direction from the Holy Spirit as to whether the verses are important for that reader's salvation, have the ability to spread the Gospel message to others, and be able to defend their faith against attacks by unbelievers who use controversies in Bible texts to persecute them. These are only a few items to consider.

I think comparing the NASB, NKJV, and the ESV to the verses above on the biblegateway website, and obtaining an interlinear Bible such as the Green Hebrew-Greek-English Interlinear Bible will help anyone have a better understanding of the intended meaning from the original texts.

Or take a look on the biblegateway site, and look at the verses in the Young's Literal Translation which is "an extremely literal translation that attempts to preserve the tense and word usage as found in the original Greek and Hebrew writings." Maybe that's considered the version closest to the original texts.
 
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Which Bible Version is closest to the original Hebrew and Greek Texts?

"I think comparing the NASB, NKJV, and the ESV to the verses above on the biblegateway website, and obtaining an interlinear Bible such as the Green Hebrew-Greek-English Interlinear Bible will help anyone have a better understanding of the intended meaning from the original texts."

But WHICH texts are these based on? the corrupt alexandrian ones.

The NKJV removes the word "Lord" 66 times!, removes the word God 51 times and removes the word "heaven" 50 times!

The esv comes from the CORRUPTED Greek texts of heretics Westcott and Hort, two unsaved men who hated the Word of God.

The nasb is based on the corrupted Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Vaticanus texts. It has the cheek to repeatedly leave out the title LORD, which identifies the Saviour's Deity!

Biblegateway is good for reading different versions, but really, you must examine where these versions came from and which texts, etc. Be wise.

Or take a look on the biblegateway site, and look at the verses in the Young's Literal Translation which is "an extremely literal translation that attempts to preserve the tense and word usage as found in the original Greek and Hebrew writings." Maybe that's considered the version closest to the original texts.

Yeah, MANY translation claim the same thing more or less. Means nothing. RESEARCH. WHICH "original Greek and Hebrew writings"? There is not just ONE line or source.
 
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pescador

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Which Bible Version is closest to the original Hebrew and Greek Texts?

Taking the question literally, the version that is closest to the original would be a Hebrew/Greek interlinear Bible. In an English translation, the Hebrew and Greek words appear above the English words. However, this results in awkwardly broken English, which is why we have so many translations to make sense of it. Also, there are no "original" Greek Texts. There are copies of copies of the original texts, most notably are the Majority Text, the Critical Text, and the Received Text. The arguments for or against which of these Texts are the actual words written by the Apostles or their scribes will make you pull your hair out if you choose to search online for which is most reliable. What is amazing in the thousands of full and fragmented pieces of scripture that have been collected is that about 98% of all of these pieces are identical even though they have been re-written by hand for centuries. And, many if not most of the differences are typographical errors such as punctuation marks that do not change the meaning of the words. Some texts have additional verses which do not show up in the other texts. The KJV was based upon the Received Text (Textus Receptus). Most modern Bible versions are based upon the Critical Text, and many include footnotes regarding differences in versions or bracket verses that are included in the Received Text but is omitted in the Critical Text. The NASB has been known to be one of the closest in wording to the Greek and Hebrew translations into English, because they included less paraphrasing and less adjectives in describing phrases. This may be more helpful for biblical students that desire to come to their own conclusions as to the meaning of particular scripture verses. Other versions add more words (or sentences such as in the Amplified version) to the verses to help express the meaning to readers. You will pull your hair out reading online arguments as to which versions are more heretical than others. Here are some things I consider when deciding on a Bible for friends and family:

First, let me mention the outstanding online Bible resource, www.biblegateway.com, which allows you to compare the many different versions regarding the same scripture verses. Another website allows you to view a single verse on all the versions on a single webpage: biblehub.com/genesis/1-1.htm

If a person grew up singing hymns written in old English, and memorized prayers in the old English of the KJV, the person may want to look at the differences in Psalm 23 (the Lord is my Shepherd...). The closest modern versions which do not change the wording drastically are the NKJV and the ESV. That alone may sway a person's decision, although it does not mean the versions are closer to the original Greek. Acts 7:45 in the KJV has Jesus leading their ancestors instead of Joshua. The NKJV prints the name as Joshua. This would be confusing for a new Christian reading the verse, not knowing that Joshua and Jesus are the same name in Hebrew to Greek. 1 John 5:6-8 adds the "Trinity" in verse 7 in some versions, some have a footnote explaining the controversy of this addition, and others have it bracketed. A good modern version probably should have some type of reference or explanation, otherwise it would not be "closest" to one of the three Texts. If you believe that the original Greek texts in Psalm 34:20 meant that the bones that are not broken is a messianic prophesy of Jesus, then you may want to make sure your version did not neutralize the gender in this verse and change "his bones" to "their bones". In John 14:23, I know of many who have a problem with gender neutral versions in that changing "him" to "them" changes the meaning in Jesus' expression of a personal relationship with God as opposed to God loving the Christian church. Some versions use Yahweh more often than others such as in Psalm 83:18 in the Holman HCSB (the newer version CSB has far fewer instances of substituting Yahweh for LORD), which makes one have to consider whether that was what was intended in the original Greek. Any Bible scholar will be familiar with the "Pericope Adulterae" in John 7:53-8:11, which is not found in most of the early Greek Gospel manuscripts. This does not mean that earlier manuscripts were more accurate to the original written texts, but a modern version should footnote or bracket these verses so that a reader can ask for direction from the Holy Spirit as to whether the verses are important for that reader's salvation, have the ability to spread the Gospel message to others, and be able to defend their faith against attacks by unbelievers who use controversies in Bible texts to persecute them. These are only a few items to consider.

I think comparing the NASB, NKJV, and the ESV to the verses above on the biblegateway website, and obtaining an interlinear Bible such as the Green Hebrew-Greek-English Interlinear Bible will help anyone have a better understanding of the intended meaning from the original texts.

Or take a look on the biblegateway site, and look at the verses in the Young's Literal Translation which is "an extremely literal translation that attempts to preserve the tense and word usage as found in the original Greek and Hebrew writings." Maybe that's considered the version closest to the original texts.

This an excellent post! It is an extremely helpful explanation from a knowledgeable person, quite different from the usual hyperbole written by those who have a bias toward what they know is "true".
 
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Kiwi Christian

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quite different from the usual hyperbole written by those who have a bias toward what they know is "true".

LOL. Everyone is biased towards what they know is "true". You demonstrated that with your last post to me.
 
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What is amazing in the thousands of full and fragmented pieces of scripture that have been collected is that about 98% of all of these pieces are identical even though they have been re-written by hand for centuries. And, many if not most of the differences are typographical errors such as punctuation marks that do not change the meaning of the words. Some texts have additional verses which do not show up in the other texts.

Don't dismiss the significance of the other 2% of variants. An entire section of John (7:53-8:12) was inserted by later scribes. It is not found in the oldest manuscripts of John. Also, its writing style is very different than the rest of the book. It also contains a large number of words and phrases not found elsewhere in John. In various NT manuscripts the story is found in different places. Some place it after John 21:25, others after Luke 21:38.

A similar thing can be found in the last twelve verses of Mark.

We have also the Johannine Comma. (1 John 5:7,8) A difference in manuscripts between the Vulgate and Erasmus. This is a passage often used to support the notion of the Trinity. This is hardly a trivial variant!

Another textual variant that affects the idea of the Trinity: 1 Timothy 3:16 "God made manifest on the flesh, and justified in the Spirit.' In the Alexandrian Codex, the word in Greek for 'God' was written in different ink and surrounding word were written in a different hand in that passage. Additionally, a bleed-through from the other side of the page changed the reading of the word. If these additions and mistakes are removed, the passage reads "who was made manifest in the flesh." Again, hardly trivial.

1 Cor. 12:13 - Have we 'drunk of one spirit' or 'drunk of one drink?' Depends on the variant you use.
 
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Steve Petersen

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Oh, come on, are we really going to just post links?

Especially wikipedia that anyone can edit?

Can i use wikipedia to prove YOUR beliefs wrong? Will YOU accept it?

No, but I would use it as a starting point for further investigation.
 
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