Go into Galilee vs. Tarry in Jerusalem

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I recently found a group of very interesting verses in the New Testament, and I was wondering what the traditional Christian way of explaining them is. They all have to do with instructions Jesus gave His apostles after He rose from the dead. Matthew 28:5-10 and Mark 16:5-7 roughly agree with each other, and both involve instructions to the apostles to go into Galilee where they will see Jesus. But Luke 24:44-51 includes instructions for the apostles to tarry in Jerusalem, until they "be endued with power from on high." The actual scriptures follow:

Matthew 28:5-10

And the angel answered and said unto the women, Fear not ye: for I know that ye seek Jesus, which was crucified.
He is not here: for he is risen, as he said. Come, see the place where the Lord lay.
And go quickly, and tell his disciples that he is risen from the dead; and, behold, he goeth before you into Galilee; there shall ye see him: lo, I have told you.
And they departed quickly from the sepulchre with fear and great joy; and did run to bring his disciples word.
And as they went to tell his disciples, behold, Jesus met them, saying, All hail. And they came and held him by the feet, and worshipped him.
Then said Jesus unto them, Be not afraid: go tell my brethren that they go into Galilee, and there shall they see me.

Mark 16:5-7

And entering into the sepulchre, they saw a young man sitting on the right side, clothed in a long white garment; and they were affrighted.
And he saith unto them, Be not affrighted: Ye seek Jesus of Nazareth, which was crucified: he is risen; he is not here: behold the place where they laid him.
But go your way, tell his disciples and Peter that he goeth before you into Galilee: there shall ye see him, as he said unto you.

Luke 24:44-51

And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.
Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,
And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:
And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.
And ye are witnesses of these things.
And, behold, I send the promise of my Father upon you: but tarry ye in the city of Jerusalem, until ye be endued with power from on high.
And he led them out as far as Bethany, and he lifted up his hands, and blessed them.
And it came to pass, while he blessed them, he was parted from them, and carried up into heaven.

So which is it? Did Jesus tell His apostles to go to Galilee or to tarry in Jerusalem? Is there any way that both versions can be right?
 

gadar perets

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I recently found a group of very interesting verses in the New Testament, and I was wondering what the traditional Christian way of explaining them is. They all have to do with instructions Jesus gave His apostles after He rose from the dead. Matthew 28:5-10 and Mark 16:5-7 roughly agree with each other, and both involve instructions to the apostles to go into Galilee where they will see Jesus. But Luke 24:44-51 includes instructions for the apostles to tarry in Jerusalem, until they "be endued with power from on high." The actual scriptures follow:

Matthew 28:5-10

And the angel answered and said unto the women, Fear not ye: for I know that ye seek Jesus, which was crucified.
He is not here: for he is risen, as he said. Come, see the place where the Lord lay.
And go quickly, and tell his disciples that he is risen from the dead; and, behold, he goeth before you into Galilee; there shall ye see him: lo, I have told you.
And they departed quickly from the sepulchre with fear and great joy; and did run to bring his disciples word.
And as they went to tell his disciples, behold, Jesus met them, saying, All hail. And they came and held him by the feet, and worshipped him.
Then said Jesus unto them, Be not afraid: go tell my brethren that they go into Galilee, and there shall they see me.

Mark 16:5-7

And entering into the sepulchre, they saw a young man sitting on the right side, clothed in a long white garment; and they were affrighted.
And he saith unto them, Be not affrighted: Ye seek Jesus of Nazareth, which was crucified: he is risen; he is not here: behold the place where they laid him.
But go your way, tell his disciples and Peter that he goeth before you into Galilee: there shall ye see him, as he said unto you.

Luke 24:44-51

And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.
Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,
And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:
And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.
And ye are witnesses of these things.
And, behold, I send the promise of my Father upon you: but tarry ye in the city of Jerusalem, until ye be endued with power from on high.
And he led them out as far as Bethany, and he lifted up his hands, and blessed them.
And it came to pass, while he blessed them, he was parted from them, and carried up into heaven.

So which is it? Did Jesus tell His apostles to go to Galilee or to tarry in Jerusalem? Is there any way that both versions can be right?
The accounts in Matthew and Mark took place shortly after his resurrection. He wanted his disciples to meet him in Galilee. Luke's account takes place 40 days later on the day Yeshua was taken up into heaven (Acts 1:3-5; 9-11). He told them to tarry in Jerusalem until they received the outpouring of the Holy Spirit 10 days later on Shavuot. I am thinking that between Luke 24:43 & 44, there is a gap in time of 40 days. I could be wrong, but there needs to be 40 days slipped into Luke 24 somewhere.
 
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dougangel

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recently found a group of very interesting verses in the New Testament, and I was wondering what the traditional Christian way of explaining them is. They all have to do with instructions Jesus gave His apostles after He rose from the dead. Matthew 28:5-10 and Mark 16:5-7 roughly agree with each other, and both involve instructions to the apostles to go into Galilee where they will see Jesus. But Luke 24:44-51 includes instructions for the apostles to tarry in Jerusalem, until they "be endued with power from on high." The actual scriptures follow:

To put this simply.
Jesus tells the Disciples at Galilee to wait in Jerusalem to be endued with power on high.(the holy spirit)
Luke is the only gospel that goes in the waiting at Jerusalem in detail.
This is called complimentary accounts. Where you get extra details from each writers account.
If account said they didn't go to Galilee or Jerusalem that would be a contradiction and of course they don't say that.
Contradiction sites get this messed up all the time.
 
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dougangel

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The accounts in Matthew and Mark took place shortly after his resurrection. He wanted his disciples to meet him in Galilee. Luke's account takes place 40 days later on the day Yeshua was taken up into heaven (Acts 1:3-5; 9-11). He told them to tarry in Jerusalem until they received the outpouring of the Holy Spirit 10 days later on Shavuot. I am thinking that between Luke 24:43 & 44, there is a gap in time of 40 days. I could be wrong, but there needs to be 40 days slipped into Luke 24 somewhere.

Matthew 28:
16 Then the eleven disciples went away into Galilee, into a mountain where Jesus had appointed them.

17 And when they saw him, they worshipped him: but some doubted.

18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.

19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.

Isn't that the trinity? A direct command from Christ.
To put it mildly. I would be very careful about denying the deity of Christ.
 
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gadar perets

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Matthew 28:
16 Then the eleven disciples went away into Galilee, into a mountain where Jesus had appointed them.

17 And when they saw him, they worshipped him: but some doubted.

18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.

19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.

Isn't that the trinity? A direct command from Christ.
To put it mildly. I would be very careful about denying the deity of Christ.
I'm not sure why you brought this up since I said nothing about denying "the deity of Christ". However, I will reply. When it says "All power is given unto me ...," it means a being greater than Yeshua (his Father, Almighty YHWH), gave it to him because the Father is the only true God (John 17:3) and has the power and authority to give it.

I have no problem believing there is a Father, a Son and a Holy Spirit. What I totally reject is the belief that the Father and Son are coequal and co-eternal or that the three comprise the one true God as per the trinity doctrine.

Also, we never see anyone in the NT baptizing in this method. Baptisms were done in the name of Yeshua only. Why is that? Why aren't we told what the "name" of the Holy Spirit is? "Name" can mean "authority" or "power" or "reputation", etc.
 
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dougangel

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I'm not sure why you brought this up since I said nothing about denying "the deity of Christ". However, I will reply. When it says "All power is given unto me ...," it means a being greater than Yeshua (his Father, Almighty YHWH), gave it to him because the Father is the only true God (John 17:3) and has the power and authority to give it.

I have no problem believing there is a Father, a Son and a Holy Spirit. What I totally reject is the belief that the Father and Son are coequal and co-eternal or that the three comprise the one true God as per the trinity doctrine.

Also, we never see anyone in the NT baptizing in this method. Baptisms were done in the name of Yeshua only. Why is that? Why aren't we told what the "name" of the Holy Spirit is? "Name" can mean "authority" or "power" or "reputation", etc.

Because that's something Jesus said in Galilee about the trinity and you have Non trinitarian in you title.

If I can paraphrase this to make it clearer.

Philippians 2:5-7
5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in the (human)form of God, thought it not robbery(it not taking from God) to be equal with God: 7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Reduced himself to flesh and blood where he could be physically killed.
 
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gadar perets

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Because that's something Jesus said in Galilee about the trinity and you have Non trinitarian in you title.

If I can paraphrase this to make it clearer.

Philippians 2:5-7
5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in the (human)form of God, thought it not robbery(it not taking from God) to be equal with God: 7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Reduced himself to flesh and blood where he could be physically killed.
To begin with, what does verse 5 mean? Does it mean that we should have the same mind as Messiah Yeshua before or after his earthly birth? Paul is telling the Philippians to have the same mind as Messiah Yeshua . If Yeshua pre-existed, he certainly did not carry the name Messiah Yeshua. That name can only be applied to the historical Yeshua, not the being who supposedly pre-existed as "the Word." Yeshua did not officially become "the Anointed" or "the Messiah" until he was baptized with the Holy Spirit (Acts 10:38).

As a child, Yeshua "waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom: and the grace of Yahweh was upon him" (Luke 2:40). Even at that time Yeshua knew who he was, knew who his Father was (Luke 2:49), and knew what he had to do. By the time of his baptism he was so filled with wisdom, knowledge, Spirit, and power that Paul says he was "in the form (or likeness) of God." God does not have a human form. He is spirit. Also, verse 6 does not say he "was God." Even though Yeshua was so filled with wisdom, knowledge, and power, he did not allow those things to corrupt him. Nor did he, for one moment, consider himself Yahweh's equal. He knew his Father was greater than himself (John 10:29; 13:16; 14:28). The RSV and many other versions correctly translate Philippians 2:6 as follows; "Who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped."

Yeshua did not strip himself of any pre-existant power or glory. He simply humbled himself and made himself of no reputation even though he was far more knowledgeable and powerful than any of his contemporaries. Instead of glorifying himself and expecting others to serve him, he chose to become a servant. He became like most men, common and unassuming as compared to the politically powerful and famous.

In addition to not exalting himself in the eyes of man, he further humbled himself by becoming totally obedient to the laws and will of His Father Yahweh. As a reward for his obedience, Yahweh has highly exalted him. A future exaltation will be the reward of all true believers if they, too, will humble themselves as Yeshua did.
 
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dougangel

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To begin with, what does verse 5 mean? Does it mean that we should have the same mind as Messiah Yeshua before or after his earthly birth? Paul is telling the Philippians to have the same mind as Messiah Yeshua . If Yeshua pre-existed, he certainly did not carry the name Messiah Yeshua. That name can only be applied to the historical Yeshua, not the being who supposedly pre-existed as "the Word." Yeshua did not officially become "the Anointed" or "the Messiah" until he was baptized with the Holy Spirit (Acts 10:38).

As a child, Yeshua "waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom: and the grace of Yahweh was upon him" (Luke 2:40). Even at that time Yeshua knew who he was, knew who his Father was (Luke 2:49), and knew what he had to do. By the time of his baptism he was so filled with wisdom, knowledge, Spirit, and power that Paul says he was "in the form (or likeness) of God." God does not have a human form. He is spirit. Also, verse 6 does not say he "was God." Even though Yeshua was so filled with wisdom, knowledge, and power, he did not allow those things to corrupt him. Nor did he, for one moment, consider himself Yahweh's equal. He knew his Father was greater than himself (John 10:29; 13:16; 14:28). The RSV and many other versions correctly translate Philippians 2:6 as follows; "Who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped."

Yeshua did not strip himself of any pre-existant power or glory. He simply humbled himself and made himself of no reputation even though he was far more knowledgeable and powerful than any of his contemporaries. Instead of glorifying himself and expecting others to serve him, he chose to become a servant. He became like most men, common and unassuming as compared to the politically powerful and famous.

In addition to not exalting himself in the eyes of man, he further humbled himself by becoming totally obedient to the laws and will of His Father Yahweh. As a reward for his obedience, Yahweh has highly exalted him. A future exaltation will be the reward of all true believers if they, too, will humble themselves as Yeshua did.

 
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gadar perets

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Posting all your proof texts at once is not beneficial to a fruitful discussion. If you would like to continue, choose one or two verses and I'll be glad to share my understanding as a strict monotheist and non-trinitarian. Or, I can just go down the list and address a few at a time. Let me know what you prefer.
 
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dougangel

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Posting all your proof texts at once is not beneficial to a fruitful discussion. If you would like to continue, choose one or two verses and I'll be glad to share my understanding as a strict monotheist and non-trinitarian. Or, I can just go down the list and address a few at a time. Let me know what you prefer.

There not all the proof texts. They are some. But if that won't convince you after reading them. I don't think I really want to waste my time and effort.
 
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gadar perets

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There not all the proof texts. They are some. But if that won't convince you after reading them. I don't think I really want to waste my time and effort.
I believe all those verses already. I just don't purposely read the trinity doctrine into them. Not one of those verses says anything about the Father, Son and Holy Spirit being co-equal and co-eternal. You said you were a trinitarian, but the verses you quoted would suggest your a oneness proponent. The trinity doctrine says the Father is NOT the Son, The Son is NOT the Holy Spirit, and the Holy Spirit is Not the Father.

images



Why, then, would you quote John 14:9-11 and 2 Corinthians 3:17 if not to teach me the Son IS both the Father and the Holy Spirit?
 
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Moral Orel

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Weird. A thread in the Apologetics section that has only Christian posters... You guys know you're not supposed to argue amongst yourselves here, right? You're supposed to present a unified front (as per the statement of purpose for the sub-forum anyways).
 
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gadar perets

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Weird. A thread in the Apologetics section that has only Christian posters... You guys know you're not supposed to argue amongst yourselves here, right? You're supposed to present a unified front (as per the statement of purpose for the sub-forum anyways).
I am not a Christian. I am a Hebrew who believes in Messiah Yeshua and keeps Torah as best as I can.
 
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mark kennedy

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I recently found a group of very interesting verses in the New Testament, and I was wondering what the traditional Christian way of explaining them is. They all have to do with instructions Jesus gave His apostles after He rose from the dead. Matthew 28:5-10 and Mark 16:5-7 roughly agree with each other, and both involve instructions to the apostles to go into Galilee where they will see Jesus. But Luke 24:44-51 includes instructions for the apostles to tarry in Jerusalem, until they "be endued with power from on high." The actual scriptures follow:

Matthew 28:5-10

And the angel answered and said unto the women, Fear not ye: for I know that ye seek Jesus, which was crucified.
He is not here: for he is risen, as he said. Come, see the place where the Lord lay.
And go quickly, and tell his disciples that he is risen from the dead; and, behold, he goeth before you into Galilee; there shall ye see him: lo, I have told you.
And they departed quickly from the sepulchre with fear and great joy; and did run to bring his disciples word.
And as they went to tell his disciples, behold, Jesus met them, saying, All hail. And they came and held him by the feet, and worshipped him.
Then said Jesus unto them, Be not afraid: go tell my brethren that they go into Galilee, and there shall they see me.

Mark 16:5-7

And entering into the sepulchre, they saw a young man sitting on the right side, clothed in a long white garment; and they were affrighted.
And he saith unto them, Be not affrighted: Ye seek Jesus of Nazareth, which was crucified: he is risen; he is not here: behold the place where they laid him.
But go your way, tell his disciples and Peter that he goeth before you into Galilee: there shall ye see him, as he said unto you.

Luke 24:44-51

And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.
Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,
And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:
And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.
And ye are witnesses of these things.
And, behold, I send the promise of my Father upon you: but tarry ye in the city of Jerusalem, until ye be endued with power from on high.
And he led them out as far as Bethany, and he lifted up his hands, and blessed them.
And it came to pass, while he blessed them, he was parted from them, and carried up into heaven.

So which is it? Did Jesus tell His apostles to go to Galilee or to tarry in Jerusalem? Is there any way that both versions can be right?
The term 'tarry' can mean to take up residence or to sit down as a ruler or a judge. Tarry, ‘kathizo’, is used to speak of Christ who will, "set on the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens" (Heb. 8:1; 12:2). The promised seed of David, ‘he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne’ (Acts 2:30). Used throughout the New Testament to speak of Christ taking his rightful place as king of kings (Rev 3:21). It can mean to simply sit down, (Matt. 5:1; 13:48), or to speak of Christ, the ‘Son of Man’, who will ‘sit’ (G2523 kathizo), 'in the throne of his glory’, ye also shall ‘sit’ (G2523 kathizo) upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. (Matt. 19:28). It speaks of who will ’sit’ at Christ’s right and left hand in the kingdom (Matt. 20:21, 23). Of the Pharisees that, ‘sit in Moses seat’ (Matt. 23:2). Luke also uses it in this way in the immediate context leading up to the ascension. “That ye may eat and drink at my table in my kingdom, and sit (G2523 kathizo), on thrones judging the twelve tribes of Israel” (Luke 22:30). They were not to return to their homes in Galilee but to take up residence in Jerusalem as the founding Apostles of the Church of God in Christ.

Tarry - G2523 matches the Greek καθίζω kathizō. (Lexicon :: Strong's G2523 kathizō. Blue Letter Bible)

Dwell, Dwellers, Dwelling (Place):
"to sit down," denotes "to dwell," in Act 18:11 (RV, "dwelt," for AV, "continued").
Set: used transitively, signifies "to cause to sit down, set, appoint," translated "to set" in Act 2:30, RV (AV, incorrectly, "to set"); in 1Cr 6:4, of appointing, i.e., obtaining the services of, judges in lawcourts; in Eph 1:20, RV, "made (Him) to sit" (AV, "set").
Note: In Hbr 8:1, kathizo is used intransitively, RV, "sat down" (AV, "is set"); so in Hbr 12:2, RV, "hath sat down" (AV, "is set down"); Rev 3:21, RV, "I... sat down" (AV, "am set down"). So epikathizo in Mat 21:7 (last part), RV, "He sat" [some mss. have the plural in a transitive sense, AV, "they set (Him)]."
See SIT, No. 8.
Sit: is used
(a) transitively, "to make sit down," Act 2:30 (see also SET, No. 9);
(b) intransitively, "to sit down," e.g., Mat 5:1, RV, "when (He) had sat down" (AV, "was set"); Mat 19:28; 20:21, 23; 23:2; 25:31; 26:36; Mar 11:2, 7; 12:41; Luk 14:28, 31; 16:6; Jhn 19:13; Act 2:3 (of the tongues of fire); Act 8:31; 1Cr 10:7; 2Th 2:4, "he sitteth," aorist tense, i.e., "he takes his seat" (as, e.g., in Mar 16:19); Rev 3:21 (twice), RV, "to sit down" and "sat down;" Rev 20:4. (Vine’s Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words. Vine)​
 
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mark kennedy

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Weird. A thread in the Apologetics section that has only Christian posters... You guys know you're not supposed to argue amongst yourselves here, right? You're supposed to present a unified front (as per the statement of purpose for the sub-forum anyways).
I don't see why not, I see no issue with bringing out honest questions with regards to apparent contradictions. When I was in Bible College they were obsessed with them.
 
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