Did Jesus die for all people?

Did Jesus die for all people?

  • Yes

    Votes: 30 88.2%
  • No, only the saved.

    Votes: 4 11.8%

  • Total voters
    34

bling

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You completely misrepresent what is written in Romans 9. This text has the summary: "God's Sovereign Choice", not man's choice. Gode mad some things for greatness and some for common. The text does not teach as you state that some that are made special end up common and some that are made common end up special. I know this is a difficult text to deal with, but if you are going to reference it, reference it correctly.

Romans 9:19-23 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?” 20 But who are you, a human being, to talk back to God? “Shall what is formed say to the one who formed it, ‘Why did you make me like this?’” 21 Does not the potter have the right to make out of the same lump of clay some pottery for special purposes and some for common use?
22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction? 23 What if he did this to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy, whom he prepared in advance for glory

Understand the analogy of a potter. Pots do not change from a water jug to a Ming vase. One is made a water jug. Another is made a Ming vase.

I did not say the common water jug, became a jug for a very special purpose or vice versa, that is not the analogy Paul is using. The fact that you are born common (like the gentiles could see themselves) and other were born very special (like the Jews could see themselves), does not matter in the least since either one can become damaged and worthless (undeserving of the Potter’s name).

Paul uses the same analogy of a common object and a special object (same Greek words) in 2 Tim 2:20. And there does say a common object can become a special object:

To understand this is Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul also points out the common can become the honored vessel.

Understanding Ro. 9 takes lots of study:

Paul uses two teaching methods in Romans that are taught in secular philosophy classes and are used even in secular classes as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments of the Psalms, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon”.


The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.


The main question in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9: 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!


This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born, but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after the question with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate).


Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau?


Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?


If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?


That is what is at issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.


Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”


Who is the “one of you” is this Jewish Christian (elect) or Gentile Christian (elect) or is this “non-elect” individual, but is this “letter” being written to non-Christians?


Can Jews say they cannot be blamed for failing in their honored position or would it be the Gentiles that would say they cannot be blamed since they were not in the honored position?


Is it really significant when it comes to what really counts, if you are born a gentile or Jew in the first century in Rome?


Are there issues and problems with being a first century Jew and was this a problem for Paul?


The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison.


How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9: 30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.


Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the born Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.


Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11: 11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!


The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.


If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11: 13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.






Rm 9: 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?


This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is a great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since the left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potters signature and He would want it destroyed.


To understand this is Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul also points out the common can become the honored vessel.
 
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bling

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Old Testament sacrifices did not atone for sin. They were done for forgiveness. As I stated before, to which you did not refute, atonement only came through Jesus' death and is much greater than all other sacrifices combined. Do you really want to argue this?

Lev. 5: 6 As a penalty for the sin they have committed, they must bring to the Lord a female lamb or goat from the flock as a sin offering ; and the priest shall make atonement for them for their sin.

Lev. 5: 10 The priest shall then offer the other as a burnt offering in the prescribed way and make atonement for them for the sin they have committed, and they will be forgiven.

The forgiveness for these unintentional sins comes after the atonement process, but this is only for these “minor” unintentional sins while there is no atonement for intentional sin which is a huge issue.

All mature adults get involved in intentional sinning.
 
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bling

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Please search the NT for ransom then gift. There are numerous vast texts that refer to what we receive from Christ's death on the cross to be a gift. It is the whole basis of the new covenant. Contrast this to the four times the NT uses ransom just as a descriptor, with absolutely no expansion of the concept of ransom.

Romans 6:23 For the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.

Romans 4:4 Now to the one who works, wages are not credited as a gift but as an obligation.

Romans 5:15 But the gift is not like the trespass. For if the many died by the trespass of the one man, how much more did God’s grace and the gift that came by the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, overflow to the many! 16 Nor can the gift of God be compared with the result of one man’s sin: The judgment followed one sin and brought condemnation, but the gift followed many trespasses and brought justification.
I really have no problem calling the ransom payment a gift, so since the gift is given to those that accept the gift they are also the ones receiving the ransom payment since it describes the same thing.
This varies with translation, but most acknowledge it to be an analogy and write "as a ransom" instead of "a ransom" which would not indicate an anology.

The word “as” was not in the original Greek, but was added by some translators and some translators might believe it to be an analogy.


You stretch the ransom analogy and give it way more thought than what scripture does. Let me give you a question.
Does a person ransomed deserve to die?

Part of the description of a kidnapping is the child does not deserve to be kidnapped, so does the rebellious disobedient person deserve to be kidnapped in your scenario?

The people of the first century understood if the “kidnapper” did not accept the ransom payment the child would be killed.

Does a person ransomed have any choice in the payment of a ransom?

The child of God be kept away from his Father does not have any say, but the kidnapper can accept or reject the ransom payment.
 
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bling

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Again, you carry the ransom analogy beyond what scripture says. Scripture does not discuss who "received" the payment, only that Jesus paid the debt. Further there is NO text that says any person chooses to accept or reject atonement for their sins. Now there may be scripture about choosing to follow God, but that is different than atonement.

I was not the first one to called the torture, humiliation and murder of Christ an ransom payment, but lots of NT authors used that description including Christ. The people of the day where most likely very familiar with the fact Caesar at age 21 was kidnapped and a ransom was paid for him so this should be easily understood.

Demons believed in Christ, so when we are told to believe in Christ so what are we to believe about Christ?

You say: “only that Jesus paid the debt”, but I thought God forgave our debt? Where does it say Jesus paid our debt of sin by going to the cross?

Actually the Scriptures may say who is being paid the ransom, but it is not translated that way. As you say the ransom was a gift and we know the gift is for us, so does that not also mean the gift is for us to take if we accept the gift?

Nevertheless the Penal Substitution theory is read into the frequent Scriptural statements that Christ died "for" us. Many Christians read the words "for us" and mentally add "as our substitute." Though that is one of the possible meanings of the preposition "for," however, we must remember that the preposition can be used in more than one way. As Gordon Clark illustrates:


For example, suppose a pastor is sick or on vacation. A visitor takes his place. This visiting minister preaches for the absent pastor and he also preaches for the congregation. But the preposition for has two different meanings in these two expressions. The visitor preaches instead of the pastor; he preaches on behalf of or for the good of the congregation.1


So it is with the Greek prepositions. There are many Greek words in this context which we translate with the English word "for." They include peri (which means "about" or "concerning"), dia ("because of" or "on account of"), and by far the most common, huper ("for," "on behalf of," or "for the sake of").


None of these prepositions necessarily invokes the meaning "in the place of." Hence the exact relationship between Christ's death and our salvation is not so clearly conveyed in any of these verses. That Jesus died "on account of" us and our sins is clear, but the Greek words translated "for" do not of themselves spell out a doctrine of Atonement.

A word of caution is warranted, however. Prepositions in any language tend to be fluid. Like the English word "for," the Greek words translated "for" can bear more than one meaning. Hence they could imply substitution. My point is that the prepositions neither make nor break the case for Satisfaction/Penal Substitution. It is unwise to build any doctrine solely on the meaning of a preposition.


That having been said, there is a fourth preposition translated "for" in these verses which does usually imply substitution. That word is anti and it normally means "in place of," though it can take on the meaning of huper also.2 The term is used solely in Matthew 20:28 and Mark 10:45, verses on which we have already commented. There Jesus' death is described as a ransom payment, so a word normally implying substitution would be natural. However, it is telling that every other verse teaching that Jesus died "for" us leans toward more ambiguous terms.


The point I make that you repeatedly ignore is that the damned do not have their sins atoned for such that on judgement day, they do not have to answer to them. The wages of sin is eternal death if they are not atoned. Now if they are not atoned then they were not bought with a price, meaning Jesus did not suffer and bear their sins.
I am not saying the damned had their sins atoned for, but Jesus was their atonement sacrifice (ransom) but they did not accept Jesus.


Read 1 Corinthians 6:19 to see the context of who was bought with a price were those whose body is a temple of God, not everybody.
Scripture says WE were “BOUGHT” (not, “our SINS were PAID”).
Read 1 Peter 2:21 to see whose sins Jesus bore, those who are called by Christ.

1 peter 2: 21 To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example, that you should follow in his steps.

Yes, Jesus suffered “for me” but that does not say: “instead of me”.

1 Peter 2:24, which states that Christ "himself bore [or "carried up"] our sins in his body on the tree" (NIV). This verse appears in a passage which quotes from Isaiah 53, virtually the only Scriptural passage which may clearly support Substitution. Yet Matthew did not interpret Isaiah in that way.


According to Matthew, "He took up our infirmities and carried our diseases" (Isa. 53:4, NIV) meant not that infirmities were vicariously imputed to Christ at his crucifixion, but rather that Christ healed the sick, thus "carrying" or "bearing" their diseases away from them (Matt. 8:16,17).


Similarly, it is possible that Jesus "bore" or "carried away" our sins from us not by becoming our substitute, but by becoming our sin offering.
 
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AnticipateHisComing

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I did not say that all sinners receive atonement for their sins. I have said that someone is only forgiven, has reconciliation with God and eternal life if they accept and receive Jesus. I have quoted John 1:12 which says, "to all who did receive him; to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God."

Jesus died for everyone - all have sinned and need salvation, and the provision is there for everyone.
Not everyone WILL receive him - some will deliberately reject him :(, some may put off making a decision and then find it is too late. Some may mistakenly believe that all religions lead to God, or that they are saved by their good deeds.

...

No. Have you actually read my posts?
ALL are sinners and need a Saviour. Jesus is Saviour. John 1:12 - "to those who believed in his name, he gave .....". John 3:36, "whoever believes in the Son has eternal life, but whoever rejects the Son does not have life, for God's wrath remains on them."
These, and other verses, show that some will receive God's free gift of salvation; others won't. I said this in post #82.

The gift of God is eternal life through Jesus, Romans 6:23. Scripture makes it clear that some will receive this gift and have eternal life, whereas some will not. But the gift - salvation through Christ, who died to reconcile mankind to God - is there for all. I don't believe people could be condemned for not receiving something that wasn't ever made available to them.
I believe that people with faith are saved. If there is a part in people to accept God, this is it, to have faith in God. We agree on this. Where we differ is you think atonement was done for all in Jesus' death, but has to be accepted by each individual. I say atonement is a gift given to those that have faith. Once you accept Jesus, there is no step to accept atonement. Those that do not accept Jesus, do not have to also reject atonement. There is no rejecting the gift of atonement because it is not given to those without faith. This is my repeated attempt for you to acknowledge which sinners/ungodly people are being addressed in Romans 5.

You might think this debate unimportant, but your view makes God to take back the gift of atonement you think given to all. I do not think God takes back gifts.
 
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The Times

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I am not saying the damned had their sins atoned for, but Jesus was their atonement sacrifice (ransom) but they did not accept Jesus.

This interpretation actually fits with the central theme of a promised seed given to humanity to once again restore the garden from its fallen state to the everlasting state, where Jesus Christ becomes the tree of life, that all are told to eat from, if so they wish to be reconciliated with the Father. The breach in the garden had been fixed by Christ's works on the cross, who ransomed us from our accuser, the devil, who had power over death, to condemn humanity to death, by virtue of his accusations (Hebrews 2:-14). The story of Job is the great controversy between God, man and Satan being dramatically played out, where Satan is has the role of the false accuser......

1Then he showed me Joshua the high priest standing before the angel of the Lord, and Satana standing at his right side to accuse him. 2The Lord said to Satan, “The Lord rebuke you, Satan! The Lord, who has chosen Jerusalem, rebuke you! Is not this man a burning stick snatched from the fire?”

Read Zechariah 3:1-10

8“ ‘Listen, High Priest Joshua, you and your associates seated before you, who are men symbolic of things to come: I am going to bring my servant, the Branch. 9See, the stone I have set in front of Joshua! There are seven eyesb on that one stone, and I will engrave an inscription on it,’ says the Lord Almighty, ‘and I will remove the sin of this land in a single day.

10“ ‘In that day each of you will invite your neighbor to sit under your vine and fig tree,’ declares the Lord Almighty.”

Again that Living Vine is the tree of life that was once again restored for humanities consumption, if so they desired to continuously eat from it. Jesus would say.....

5“I am the vine; you are the branches. If you remain in me and I in you, you will bear much fruit; apart from me you can do nothing. 6If you do not remain in me, you are like a branch that is thrown away and withers; such branches are picked up, thrown into the fire and burned. 7If you remain in me and my words remain in you, ask whatever you wish, and it will be done for you. 8This is to my Father’s glory, that you bear much fruit, showing yourselves to be my disciples.

So Jesus Christ is the Tree of Life, who brought a solution (CHARA in the Hebrew) to all of humanity by settling the great controversy once and for all and restoring the breach that was initiated by Satan the deceiver and father of lies. The angel of death Satan was forever shut up, that is chained, until the nations once again conspire against God and to pervert his ways and foresake his Son's covenant.


Similarly, it is possible that Jesus "bore" or "carried away" our sins from us not by becoming our substitute, but by becoming our sin offering.

The idea of substitution is just that, because Joshua and his high priest kindreds were symbols of the servant, the branch to come to restore the breach that was in the garden, becoming onto us the tree of life.
 
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The Times

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I believe that people with faith are saved. If there is a part in people to accept God, this is it, to have faith in God. We agree on this. Where we differ is you think atonement was done for all in Jesus' death, but has to be accepted by each individual. I say atonement is a gift given to those that have faith. Once you accept Jesus, there is no step to accept atonement. Those that do not accept Jesus, do not have to also reject atonement. There is no rejecting the gift of atonement because it is not given to those without faith. This is my repeated attempt for you to acknowledge which sinners/ungodly people are being addressed in Romans 5.

You might think this debate unimportant, but your view makes God to take back the gift of atonement you think given to all. I do not think God takes back gifts.

The door of salvation is always opened to the good and to the wicked to remain faithful even onto death......here is the example Jesus gave that paints the reality.....

Who then is the faithful and wise servant, whom the master has put in charge of the servants in his household to give them their food at the proper time?46It will be good for that servant whose master finds him doing so when he returns. 47Truly I tell you, he will put him in charge of all his possessions. 48But suppose that servant is wicked and says to himself, ‘My master is staying away a long time,’ 49and he then begins to beat his fellow servants and to eat and drink with drunkards. 50The master of that servant will come on a day when he does not expect him and at an hour he is not aware of. 51He will cut him to pieces and assign him a place with the hypocrites, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.

A servant represents one who has accepted to be justified by the blood of Christ, however because he/she backslides and cannot finish his/her race by keeping the faith even onto death, then that servant who once was faithful, will also be judged alongside the hypocrites.
 
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AnticipateHisComing

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So if Jesus says that we shouldn't love only people who we know will love us - how can, and why would, God, who is love, do that?

How could Jesus be the second Adam if he had only brought life for some people?

Humanist??
I have quoted Scripture and you say I am offering a humanist argument?
It is a common atheist/humanists argument that if an all powerful god existed and he was also all loving that there would be no suffering in the world and also that it is unjust for any to be damned.
Understand that premise one; God is all powerful is based on scripture.
Premise two, God is all loving is based on scripture.
Humanist argument, the rules God gives us must be applied in the same way to himself.

You have repeated multiple times in this thread that because God is love, he should do such and such.
You argue similarly to the humanists when you think God must equally apply his love to all, because God told us to live so in this age. What you ignore is that both we and God will judge the damned on judgement day. If we acknowledge that God judges the damned on judgement day, then we must allow him to do so before then. The difference is that God knows who will be damned before judgement day, but we do not.
 
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Strong in Him

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It is a common atheist/humanists argument that if an all powerful god existed and he was also all loving that there would be no suffering in the world and also that it is unjust for any to be damned.

Atheist, maybe; not humanist.
Humanists don't believe in God. They believe that humans are the highest power, that human achievement is the most valuable thing and that humans have the power to shape their own destiny.

"If there is a God, why does he allow suffering?" is one of the most common questions that unbelievers ask, and may be a real stumbling block. If it is an atheist -someone who claims that they know there is no God - who is asking, it could be they want to trip you up or have a reason to dismiss the faith. As their belief is that they know for a fact there is no God; he doesn't exist, why are they attributing suffering to him, or concerned about him possibly damming unbelievers? Humanists would say that whether or not a person suffers in life is just fate; the hand life deals you.

Understand that premise one; God is all powerful is based on scripture.
Premise two, God is all loving is based on scripture.

I know.

Humanist argument, the rules God gives us must be applied in the same way to himself.

A Humanist doesn't believe in God.

You have repeated multiple times in this thread that because God is love, he should do such and such.

a) I wouldn't dream of telling God what he should do.
b) I have been saying that, based on Scripture and what we know about the character of God, we have good reason to think that he would act in a certain way. I may not have used those words, but that is what I meant. This is what Jesus did; taught, and then showed it by his example. He told us to forgive our enemies, and on the cross prayed "Father, forgive ......". He told us to love, and then showed us HOW to love. He told us that we should serve one another - and stooped to wash his disciples' feet. He said that God would forgive us in the same way that we showed forgiveness to others -and told us to pray that. He said that if human fathers, who are sinful, know how to give good things to their children; how much more would God give good things to us.

What I see in Scripture is Jesus, who is God, telling us to behave in certain ways/show a certain quality and then demonstrating that teaching/command in his own life. So it seems reasonable, and Scriptural, to sometimes say, "God would do this" or "would act in this way."

You argue similarly to the humanists when you think God must equally apply his love to all, because God told us to live so in this age.

My humanist aunt and cousins don't argue about God at all. They don't believe in him.

But Jesus disliked, and spoke out against, hypocrisy. A God who commanded us to show love to everyone and then was, himself, selective about whom he loved, would be acting hypocritically - and would it be just to condemn someone for something that he was unable/unwilling to do?
God is love and just.
 
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bling

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This interpretation actually fits with the central theme of a promised seed given to humanity to once again restore the garden from its fallen state to the everlasting state, where Jesus Christ becomes the tree of life, that all are told to eat from, if so they wish to be reconciliated with the Father. The breach in the garden had been fixed by Christ's works on the cross, who ransomed us from our accuser, the devil, who had power over death, to condemn humanity to death, by virtue of his accusations (Hebrews 2:-14). The story of Job is the great controversy between God, man and Satan being dramatically played out, where Satan is has the role of the false accuser......

1Then he showed me Joshua the high priest standing before the angel of the Lord, and Satana standing at his right side to accuse him. 2The Lord said to Satan, “The Lord rebuke you, Satan! The Lord, who has chosen Jerusalem, rebuke you! Is not this man a burning stick snatched from the fire?”

Read Zechariah 3:1-10

8“ ‘Listen, High Priest Joshua, you and your associates seated before you, who are men symbolic of things to come: I am going to bring my servant, the Branch. 9See, the stone I have set in front of Joshua! There are seven eyesb on that one stone, and I will engrave an inscription on it,’ says the Lord Almighty, ‘and I will remove the sin of this land in a single day.

10“ ‘In that day each of you will invite your neighbor to sit under your vine and fig tree,’ declares the Lord Almighty.”

Again that Living Vine is the tree of life that was once again restored for humanities consumption, if so they desired to continuously eat from it. Jesus would say.....

5“I am the vine; you are the branches. If you remain in me and I in you, you will bear much fruit; apart from me you can do nothing. 6If you do not remain in me, you are like a branch that is thrown away and withers; such branches are picked up, thrown into the fire and burned. 7If you remain in me and my words remain in you, ask whatever you wish, and it will be done for you. 8This is to my Father’s glory, that you bear much fruit, showing yourselves to be my disciples.

So Jesus Christ is the Tree of Life, who brought a solution (CHARA in the Hebrew) to all of humanity by settling the great controversy once and for all and restoring the breach that was initiated by Satan the deceiver and father of lies. The angel of death Satan was forever shut up, that is chained, until the nations once again conspire against God and to pervert his ways and foresake his Son's covenant.




The idea of substitution is just that, because Joshua and his high priest kindreds were symbols of the servant, the branch to come to restore the breach that was in the garden, becoming onto us the tree of life.

You seem to be sold on the “Ransom Theory of Atonement” which has early roots going back to the third century, but that was a time of many kidnappings and ransoms being paid almost as away of life.

Christ, Paul, John, Peter and The Hebrew writer all say Christ’s torture, humiliation and murder was a ransom payment, so it was a ransom, but who is the kidnapper being paid? God does not seem likely, so what about satan?

Tell me this if our all-powerful God could just as easily and safely take His children back without paying would it than be wrong to pay the kidnapper satan?

Does God owe satan anything?

Does this make satan almost on an equal plan with God? (Some do think there is this “war” going on in heaven which God will eventually win.)
 
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AnticipateHisComing

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Lets refresh what we are even arguing about. It was not about Jews or Gentiles in the Church. It was your questioning does God love all people equally.
You say: “God can have mercy on who he wants.” So can God be totally arbitrary about who He saves and does not save?
I answered your question with a simple quote of Romans 9:15. You try long and hard to dispute these simple words. Understand that the verse is a direct quote of Exodus 33:19. It is a truism that stands on its own. It needs no "context" of a Jewish Gentile clash to be explained.
It is one thing to start a person out rich or become a rich person and make or start out with another person mentally challenged and/or unhealthy like Lazarus, but that does not matter in the large scheme of things since a Lazarus can go to heaven and the rich man can go to hell. Everything that leaves the Potter’s shop has His name on it and can be used for a common purpose or a very special purpose, but from both groups some after leaving the shop become damaged and are worthless (made for destruction).
You allude to groups changing after leaving the hands of the potter. Isaiah 29:16 and Isaiah 45:9 teach nothing like that.
I did not say the common water jug, became a jug for a very special purpose or vice versa, that is not the analogy Paul is using. The fact that you are born common (like the gentiles could see themselves) and other were born very special (like the Jews could see themselves), does not matter in the least since either one can become damaged and worthless (undeserving of the Potter’s name).
Like I said, Romans 9 has the summary title "God's Sovereign Choice", not man's choice.
It is not teaching on the choices that man makes, but God's. These verses highlight people being held accountable to God's plan in creation.

11 Yet, before the twins were born or had done anything good or bad—in order that God’s purpose in election might stand:
14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!
19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?” 20 But who are you, a human being, to talk back to God? “Shall what is formed say to the one who formed it, ‘Why did you make me like this?’”
23 What if he did this to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy, whom he prepared in advance for glory

It is the plan of God's election that the saved will come from both Jew and Gentile as Romans 9:8 along with Romans 9:24-29 state. Lastly Romans 9:30-33 show the importance of faith in the elect over either being a descendant of Abraham or following the law.

The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.
Surely Paul was at odds with Jews in the early church that did not make it easy for Gentiles to come in. He did discuss it in multiple letters, but it was doctrine firmly established very early in Paul's ministry as documented in Acts. The controversy in the early church for Gentiles to follow Jewish laws and customs has been settled long ago.

Not to say that the doctrines gleaned from Paul's letters are without debate, only that the doctrines are much "meatier" than what you propose significant. If one wants to ponder what great doctrine Paul was teaching in his letter to the Romans, it would be that of righteousness. Paul uses the word more times than any other apostle and in Romans uses it more than any of his other letters. Does this mean Romans 9 is about righteousness, no. It means Paul is able to teach on varied topics and you can't pigeonhole him to only discussing Jewish Gentile relationships.
Understanding Ro. 9 takes lots of study:
Paul uses two teaching methods in Romans that are taught in secular philosophy classes and are used even in secular classes as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments of the Psalms, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon
Romans 9 may be difficult to accept, but I would never say it difficult to understand. There is no great context required to read the chapter. It affirms the supremacy of God, which should be understood from creation, Romans 1:19-20. It highlights God's plan and active role in realizing that plan. These concepts had been taught in the OT: Exodus, Psalms, Proverbs, Isaiah. The Hebrew nation had the history of all the signs where God made his might and authority known.

The Gentiles that Paul was reaching out to were much more grounded in reasoning over blindly following. Paul anticipates challenges to God's sovereignty, and quotes imaginary questions Romans 9:14,19. Note that Paul does not formulate a reasoned response with arguments proving his answer. He merely quotes the OT: Exodus 33:19, Exodus 9:16, Isaiah 29:16, Isaiah 45:9. Hardly analytical rhetoric debate.
The main question in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9: 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!

This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born, but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after the question with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate).


Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau?


Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?


If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?


That is what is at issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.


Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”


Who is the “one of you” is this Jewish Christian (elect) or Gentile Christian (elect) or is this “non-elect” individual, but is this “letter” being written to non-Christians?


Can Jews say they cannot be blamed for failing in their honored position or would it be the Gentiles that would say they cannot be blamed since they were not in the honored position?


Is it really significant when it comes to what really counts, if you are born a gentile or Jew in the first century in Rome?


Are there issues and problems with being a first century Jew and was this a problem for Paul?
Sounds like identity politics. Everything is not about race. In fact, the race question was settled in Romans 9:7-8, well before all the arguments in this discourse. And, if you want a race debate, go read Romans 11. Does the extent of God's plan only involve Jews vs. Gentiles? God's sovereignty extends to the whole world and the purpose of his plan is stated in Romans 9:22-23. An example of God's wrath is given with Pharaoh, which Exodus 9:12 says God hardened his heart. God did this so that his might and glory should be known to his people, the objects of his mercy. The argument is not over race.
The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison.

How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9: 30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.


Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the born Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.


Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11: 11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!


The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.


If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11: 13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.
So Paul postulated that Jews are inherently special, only to cut them down to being equal to Gentiles. He creates a problem to solve it. He takes the opposite side of every other time he argues Jews vs. Gentiles. I don't think so.

Did you notice that Romans 9 quotes 17 verses of OT text? There was not a huge Jew vs. Gentile clash in the Church in that time. What Paul was teaching is an old concept that has nothing to do with race. It has to do with God's plan and election. This is what Romans 9:24 states with Paul clearly stating "us", the elect, are both Jew and Gentile.
Rm 9: 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?


This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is a great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since the left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potters signature and He would want it destroyed.
Romans 9:22 can't be read without Romans 9:21,23. Romans 9:21 states an authority of the potter to make two different kinds of pots: special and common. Who are the special? Romans 9:6 says they are those of Israel, but not because of race. This is an early reference to Romans 11 where Israel is a term for all the saved. Verses 7 and 8 reinforce this, adding in the children of the promise, symbolized with the promise to Sarah. Verse 12 adds in the special as being the elect. Read Matthew 24:31 to see the elect come from every direction. Read Romans 11:7 to see that some elect come from the Jews but are not all of them, not a race. 2 Timothy 2:10 says they are those that have salvation in Christ. 2 Peter 1:10 says the elect are those called by God. The special are those God has compassion on, Romans 9:15.

The other kind of pot is the common. It is represented by Esau who sold his birthright because of his lack of faith, verse 13. And, Pharaoh whose heart was hardened to go against God, verse 17. Those judged by the Lord in the times of Isaiah, verse 28,9.

If there are two kinds of pots, then Romans 9:22,23 describe the purpose of the two kinds. He uses one kind for making his power known. He uses the other kind to show his glory and mercy. Nothing in the text alludes to the two kinds of pots being of race. Nothing in the text speaks about the pots changing after being made. Nothing talks about them having his "special mark".
To understand this is Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul also points out the common can become the honored vessel.

You take great liberties bringing in 2 Timothy 2:20-21 to this text. Timothy is addressing what people should do while claiming to follow God: don't quarrel, avoid godless chatter, stay in the truth, turn away from wickedness and so on. This text is markedly different from Romans 9 where it speaks of God's actions, not man's. So what if two words are common?

PS

In the end I want commend you though for defending what you believe and using scripture to do so, even if I am at odds with some of your views. I think truth unchallenged is subject to errors so it is good to get multiple perspectives instead of just putting all your trust in ones teacher.

Or maybe we are just honing our skill in presenting arguments.
 
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AnticipateHisComing

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Lev. 5: 6 As a penalty for the sin they have committed, they must bring to the Lord a female lamb or goat from the flock as a sin offering ; and the priest shall make atonement for them for their sin.

Lev. 5: 10 The priest shall then offer the other as a burnt offering in the prescribed way and make atonement for them for the sin they have committed, and they will be forgiven.

The forgiveness for these unintentional sins comes after the atonement process, but this is only for these “minor” unintentional sins while there is no atonement for intentional sin which is a huge issue.

All mature adults get involved in intentional sinning.
The priests made atonement sacrifices so that their sins are forgiven. Read Hebrews 10 to learn that no animal sacrifice atoned for any sin. It was Jesus death that atoned for past and future sins.
 
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AnticipateHisComing

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Part of the description of a kidnapping is the child does not deserve to be kidnapped, so does the rebellious disobedient person deserve to be kidnapped in your scenario?

The people of the first century understood if the “kidnapper” did not accept the ransom payment the child would be killed.
This is why the strict ransom theory is not the best analogy of what Jesus death on the cross is for Christians. We deserve to die. Jesus died instead so that we may be free from our just debt. This allows for faith in us to cause righteousness to be credited to us.
 
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The Times

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but who is the kidnapper being paid? God does not seem likely, so what about satan?

Scripture states that God ransomed us from him who had the power over death, that is the devil.

Satan is NOT being bribed or paid anything, rather the vehicle by which Satan uses to condemn man was in regards to the question of righteousness, before the righteous God. So it is a ransom in the sense of silencing Satan once and for all, by voiding all his arguments against man, by the act of God becoming a man and proving Satan wrong in one day, on the cross at calvary. What was paid is not to Satan, but rather at what COST did God needed to go to in order to accomplish this in one day?

The COST is the precious blood of his only begotten Son Jesus Christ, who became not only the lamb of God to atone for humanity, but also took the role of high priest from Joshua, by interceding on our behalves in the Holy of Holies. Therefore Satan no longer can accuse those who were purchased by the blood of Christ, so long they abide in him even onto death.

Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood. (Acts 20:28)

Tell me this if our all-powerful God could just as easily and safely take His children back without paying would it than be wrong to pay the kidnapper satan?

It is not the question of paying the kidnapper/accusser who is Satan, rather at what cost would it take for OUR all-powerful God to salvage his children back. We have to go back to the Garden and understand the promise that God made to Adam, in how he would save him and fix the breach/fall. We need to go back to the promise made to Abraham, Moses, David and look at the greater picture, how God did this. You know why he came through the lineage of David?

Because it is related to the promise and as we see throughout the old testament, we realise that OUR all-powerful God didn't just come and rock the world as a super star, rather he used humanity for thousands of years within his salvation plan, then finally he would come riding on a donkey's colt in humility as the suffering servant. So humanity had to have a role to play and God promised that the SEED of Promise would come to be the last Adam, to resolve the breach between man and God, through the Son. God told Abraham that he will provide the Lamb to do this.

Again at what cost to God, for this is the cost of purchasing us from the devil who had a stranglehold on all of humanity by his reason of accussing man as the prosecutor before the righteous God.

18Whereupon neither the first testament was dedicated without blood. (Hebrews 9:18)

The cost was the blood........
For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. (John 3:16)

Abraham was told to go through the motion, pointing to the lamb of God, how the righteous Father would purchase back, what was snatched by Satan in the Garden.

Does God owe satan anything?

No.

Does this make satan almost on an equal plan with God? (Some do think there is this “war” going on in heaven which God will eventually win.)

No, Satan is a defeated foe. The cross of Christ permanently silenced him, until as of recent he has been released to wage his final war against Christ's sheep by perpetrating a world wide calvary. It is crash and burn for Satan this time around.
 
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def

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The purpose of Jesus' death was the atonement of sins. I say the sins of those going to hell will not be atoned. Since Jesus' death will not atone their sins, I say Jesus did not die for them.
Now we are not to judge and determine who will be saved and who specifically will receive God's grace. I just want to argue the principle that Jesus died for a purpose and that purpose will only be helpful to the saved. While God's grace is available to all, it only helps the few.​
Some Bibles use propitiation instead of atonement; they have different meanings.
 
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Noah837

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Yahusha (Jesus) did die as our atonement as the sacrificial lamb who shed his blood for the sins of the whole world that had cleansed all of us who believe in him. I recommend reading 1 John 2:2. Yahusha died to fill in the gap separating us from the Father who's name is Yahuah by conquering death and voluntarily paying the wages of sin as a substitute for us so that we don't pay the wages and be punished for our sins. What Yahusha did was purely love and mercy but many will deny him and not repent of their iniquities, thus they will assume responsibility for the penalty for their sins and reap the consequences.
 
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def

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John 1:29: Behold the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world.

Adam committed the sin of the world, the consequence is death. Jesus' resurrection conquered death, and took away the sin of the world. Jesus died for all. For God so love the world (!) that he send ...
God proclaimed a New Covenant, and a term in the covenant has God remembering sins no more. (Jeremiah 31:33-34).
One has to enter into this covenant with God to get the benefit of the covenant. To enter into the covenant relationship with God, we hear the gospel, repent, believe Jesus is the Christ, and that he died and rose again.
 
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Noah837

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You are partially wrong in that there is a new covenant my friend. Yahusha, please learn his true name, but Yahusha REnewed the covenant Yahuah God made with Abraham which is the torah, not set up a brand new covenant. We are to abide in him in spirit and truth through sanctification of repenting all the time, not just believe and accept him realizing we are sinners. But we are to deny ourselves, bear our crosses, and follow him and his commandments that he demonstrated how we are to comply with the torah and observe it for he came not to destroy the law of the torah but to fulfill! It is only through Yahusha and his grace and mercy that saves us, we are to follow him being holy as he is holy.
 
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AnticipateHisComing

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I was not the first one to called the torture, humiliation and murder of Christ an ransom payment, but lots of NT authors used that description including Christ. The people of the day where most likely very familiar with the fact Caesar at age 21 was kidnapped and a ransom was paid for him so this should be easily understood.
Four or five text is not a lot and only one of them contains any elaboration on Christ's death.
Actually the Scriptures may say who is being paid the ransom, but it is not translated that way. As you say the ransom was a gift and we know the gift is for us, so does that not also mean the gift is for us to take if we accept the gift?
Have you every declined a gift? Compare it to how many will choose to not follow God? I ask again, show me one text where we choose to accept God's gifts. We may decide to follow God and as a result be bestowed with gifts, but we do not decide to accept these gifts. Further, God does not take back gifts.
Romans 11:29 for God’s gifts and his call are irrevocable.
You say: “only that Jesus paid the debt”, but I thought God forgave our debt? Where does it say Jesus paid our debt of sin by going to the cross?
Forgiving us our debts/sins is different than atonement as I have stated. We continue to ask for forgiveness. The atonement Jesus did for us only had to be done once. We have a debt from sin, Romans 6:23. We were bought at a price, Acts 20:28, 1 Corinthians 6:20. That means someone paid a price. Romans 3:25 restates this. For a clear text, you can't get any better than:
Colossians 2:13 When you were dead in your sins and in the uncircumcision of your flesh, God made you alive with Christ. He forgave us all our sins, 14 having canceled the charge of our legal indebtedness, which stood against us and condemned us; he has taken it away, nailing it to the cross. 15 And having disarmed the powers and authorities, he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them by the cross.​
The point I make that you repeatedly ignore is that the damned do not have their sins atoned for such that on judgement day, they do not have to answer to them. The wages of sin is eternal death if they are not atoned. Now if they are not atoned then they were not bought with a price, meaning Jesus did not suffer and bear their sins.

Read 1 Corinthians 6:19 to see the context of who was bought with a price were those whose body is a temple of God, not everybody.

Read 1 Peter 2:24 to see whose sins Jesus bore, those who are called by Christ.
I am not saying the damned had their sins atoned for, but Jesus was their atonement sacrifice (ransom) but they did not accept Jesus.

Similarly, it is possible that Jesus "bore" or "carried away" our sins from us not by becoming our substitute, but by becoming our sin offering.
My point in these two texts is that they specifically state who Jesus died and suffered for, not everyone.
 
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bling

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I am having a hard time with your version of atonement, so I will try mine. From the beginning, the offense.
Romans 6:23 For the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.​

Now scripture does not make a big deal about different "types" of sin as you do and puts all people in the category of unrighteous.
Romans 2:12 12 All who sin apart from the law will also perish apart from the law, and all who sin under the law will be judged by the law.
Romans 3:10 As it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one;


There is no “advantage” to having our “minor” (unintentional) sins atoned for, since all mature adults are guilty of grievous intentional sins (need some huge solution). But this minor sin atonement does teach us somethings about atonement.

Now for the judgement. While there may be judgments on earth, scripture points to a final judgment.
Acts 17:31 For he has set a day when he will judge the world with justice by the man he has appointed. He has given proof of this to everyone by raising him from the dead.”​

Now for the penalty of sin, which is eternal death. As only two are known to have not died, the penalty of sin that is taken away is not earthly death, but eternal death.
Matthew 25:46 “Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life.”​

So God has given us atonement. It is a gift such that we are not held "accountable" for our sins.
Hebrews 2:17 For this reason he had to be made like them, fully human in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people.​


Stop right there for a moment, if you are forgiven of all your sins through God’s grace, how can you still be held accountable for these sins? (Does God both forgive and “forget” (unconditional forgiveness) at the same time?)

I would say God’s forgiveness allows us to no longer be held accountable and not atonement doing this?
How was atonement accomplished?
Romans 3:25 God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement, through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished​


“Sacrifice of atonement” is described by Jesus, Paul, Peter, John and the Hebrew writer as the “ransom payment” or just “ransom”. So God is offering a ransom payment to be accepted by those with faith or rejected by those refusing or just not accepted by those lacking faith.



A huge part of that ransom payment that especially applies to those that are already Christians is the life giving cleansing blood of Christ. Christ and God would have personally preferred that blood remained in Christ’s veins, but I needed it given up by Christ to flow over both my outside and my heart to know, experience, “trust” and feel I am cleansed and made alive. So Christ willingly gave up His blood for me and because of me. This is an overwhelming tragedy I insisted on to believe: I was made holy, righteous and stand justified. Without knowing and feeling this blood flowing over my heart, I might question my cleansing?



“Demonstrate his righteousness” God did not become righteous, but just showed the righteousness He has always had. (God’s justice/ holiness/being right) comes with the atoning sacrifice that includes the life giving cleansing blood showing God’s righteousness/justice in a very particular way; by resolving the huge problem that existed under the Old Covenant. That huge problem in the Old Covenant was with the handling of intentional sins that where committed, repented of, and which the individual sought forgiveness from God for doing (and God forgave without justly disciplining the sinner [thus not showing His righteousness through His disciplining]). These sins could be forgiven by God, but there was no way to fairly/justly discipline (punish) the sinner and still have the sinner live in the Promised Land. God did have fair/just punishments (discipline) for these sins, but the Jews could not follow through with them, since all Jews deserved to be treated similarly (there would be no one left in the Promised Land).



“in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished” Instead of “unpunished” I would translate that Greek word to be “undisciplined”.


“because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished”, shows the contrast between before and after the cross. This is not saying: “before the cross sins are now being punished by Christ going to the cross”, but is saying they were left unpunished prior to the cross. If they are being handled the “same way” as sins after the cross there would be no contrast? (And there are lots of other problems with this reasoning.) There is no “punishment” (disciplining for intentional sins) before the cross yet there is “punishment” (disciplining of God’s children) with the cross.
Who does scripture call out as receiving atonement such that on judgement day they will not be held accountable for their sin?
Galatians 3:9-14 So those who rely on faith are blessed along with Abraham, the man of faith.​


Abraham and others in the Old Testament were forgiven and nothing is ever said about them “receiving atonement” is that something you made up to fit your theology?
How does accounting work? If you are going to study righteousness then you must study debts and credits. Our sins are debts. Jesus paid these debts with his sacrifice. This gave us credits that cancel our debts. This is why scripture many times states righteousness as being credited to us. Romans 4 goes on about this.
Romans 4:3 What does Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness.” 4 Now to the one who works, wages are not credited as a gift but as an obligation.​


Jesus bought us and does not say Jesus paid our debt, so where are you getting that from?

Ro. 4:5…their faith is credited as righteousness

Did God forgive your debt or did Jesus pay your debt and if you say “both” that is poor “accounting”?

Forgiveness is a huge gift and Christ going through torture, humiliation and murder is a huge ransom payment (gift I could not pay).

When is the credit given? When one has what is required for atonement, when one has faith, they obtain the credit of righteousness.


When is the credit given? When one has what is required for atonement, when one has faith, they obtain the credit of righteousness.
Romans 4:10 Under what circumstances was it credited? Was it after he was circumcised, or before? It was not after, but before! 11 And he received circumcision as a sign, a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. So then, he is the father of all who believe but have not been circumcised, in order that righteousness might be credited to them.​


God is the one implementing the credit.

Romans 4 atonement reference can be found in: 24 but also for us, to whom God will credit righteousness—for us who believe in him who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead. 25 He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification.

That adds the idea of “justification”:

Being justified is being “set free from every sin” (Acts 13 :39).

Being Justified means you have been raised to life (Ro. 4:25).

The “gift” brings justification. (Ro. 5:16).

“…one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people” (Ro. 5:18).

“…you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God….” (1 Cor. 6:11)

Luke 18:14 “those who humble themselves will be exalted.” ( justified before the Lord) so humility is part of it.

Justification comes through the redemption by Christ Jesus. (Ro. 3:24)

God is shown as being just and thus can justify. (Ro. 3:26)

We have been justified by his blood (Ro. 5:9)

those he called, he also justified; those he justified, he also glorified. (Ro.8:30)

We believe by our heart and are thus justified. (Ro.10:10)

“…having been justified by his grace, we might become heirs having the hope of eternal life.” (Titus 3:7)

Acts 13:39 Through him everyone who believes is set free from every sin, a justification you were not able to obtain under the law of Moses. (Paul’s “Pisidian Antioch sermon in the synagogue”)

Did those in the OT stand justified before God?

When can we stand justified before God (Ro. 3:26)
When is the credit used? In accounting you tabulate the debts and the credits in the end. It does not matter when the debt was made or when the credit was given, it is the end of our life in this age where all our credits and debts are fixed that we are judged on. This is where you are thrown off in your reading of Paul's comments.

Romans 3:5 God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement, through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26 he did it to demonstrate his righteousness at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.​


Where does it ever suggest a “loan” given to those prior to the cross and forgiven, since it specifically says “unpunished”. If you are suggest Jesus paid this “loan” then Paul should have said “to be punished later” and not said “left unpunished”. There would also not be a contrast since sins prior to the cross and after the cross are handled the same way.
The demonstrating of his righteousness is the creating of the credits that we use to obtain righteousness through faith. Since God is one of justice and laws, and the law was never abolished those that died before Jesus paid the price for our sins/atoned them had no paid way for salvation. The forbearance that left sins committed beforehand unpunished is that people that died before Jesus' death did not go to hell; their sins were unpunished/unpaid. The forbearance can be imagined as a loan where Abraham and others received a loan of their sins being atoned for before Jesus actually came and did it. This is why scripture places significance on the actual day of receiving the promise/coming of perfection.
Hebrews 11:39 These were all commended for their faith, yet none of them received what had been promised, 40 since God had planned something better for us so that only together with us would they be made perfect.

Further evidence that people in the OT were credited with righteousness and received atonement for their sins even before Jesus died is that people were in heaven before Jesus died. Proof is in the transfiguration with Moses and Elijah appearing. Now the Catholics create the doctrine of "Abraham's bosum" where people that died before Jesus waited for the price of their sins to be paid, but it is contrived without scriptural support.

Where does it say anyone in the OT stood justified before God?

Yes, those saints in the OT were forgiven, but where does it say anyone in the OT received atonement for their intentional sins?

If those in the OT like you said: “received atonement for their sins even before Jesus died” then they seem just as well off as us today, but the verse say: “God had planned something better for us” so what is the better?

So in summary, atonement is preeminent for our eternal salvation which is judged on judgement day, set in stone at our death. The result being we are not held accountable for our sins. It is an accounting step necessary because of God's righteousness and rule by law. The important common doctrine is that we are saved by our faith.

Again if our sins are forgiven how are we still held accountable for them?

The sins of the damned are not atoned for on judgement day and they are judged against them, receiving eternal punishment.

Now there are other parts to salvation and sanctification, but the argument in the OP is just about atonement. I hope this lets you look at it in a different way.

The OP was about Jesus’ death and not atonement, since Jesus’ death is only the atonement sacrifice.

Jesus’ torture, humiliation and murder was done for everyone, but that does not mean everyone obtained atonement.
 
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