IT DOES NOT SAY THAT.
Sorry, it does not say: "JOHN," "HIMSELF," "LEAPED" "FOR" "JOY" "IN" "HIS" "MOTHER'S" "WOMB".
Where is the original Greek you were praising so much, where is the Greek for any of that, except the "leaped" and "for" and "joy."?
Not in Luke!
edit: Mostly your fabrication, in case you didn't notice.
Hi Douglas, you must be new to this thread, because it has been outlined numerous times, and explained numerous times to people that it was John, in his mother's womb who leaped, and the reason he leaped was for joy. The joy was his. This has been explained to you numerous times. It's how the Greek is written. It's what is written down. The ONLY reason you're arguing against this is because of a personally fabricated view of humanity.
Luke 1:44 For, lo, as soon as the voice of thy salutation sounded in mine ears, the babe leaped in my womb for joy.
The verse is very clear in English, and even more clear in Greek. Period. Factual. Not something debated. This is why every single theologian and commentator, spanning every single branch of Christianity has agreed. This is not something that anyone in the Church has debated for the simple reason that the passage is quite clear in what it's saying. Frankly, you're the first person I know of in the history of Christianity to rage against it. And I daresay, that the only reason you're doing so is because of a fabricated belief that isn't based on Scripture.
Not only is the verse clear that the baby leaped because he was joyful, it's also clear that Scripture calls John in the womb a baby! I pointed this out to you before.
The Greek word used for "baby" in
Luke 1:41 is used 8 times in the NT.
Luke 1:41 and 44 as we have been discussing, as well as the following.
Luke 2:12 - This will be a sign for you: you will find a baby wrapped in cloths....
Luke 2:16 - So they came in a hurry and found their way to Mary and Joseph, and the baby as he lay in the manger.
Luke 18:15 - And they were bringing even their babies to Him so that He would touch them...
Acts 7:19 - It was he who took shrewd advantage of our race and mistreated our fathers so that they would expose their infants and they would not survive.
I Timothy 3:15 - and that from childhood you have known the sacred writings....
I Peter 2:2 - Like newborn babies, long for the pure milk of the word...
I'm sure you'll see where this is going. If the life inside Elizabeth's womb was not considered a person, why would Scripture not use a different word?
The bottom line is that your fabricated position about fetus' not being real human beings is at odds with Scripture. You are not capable of justifying your position with Scripture. What's worse than that, is that you're not even capable of justifying your position with Science. Both Scripture and science are at odds with your fabricated position.
No amount of magical word-smithing will change the clear Greek sentence structure that is presented in Scripture.
Basically, you came up with an idea in your head about human life, what it is inside the womb, what is outside the womb, and how it all goes together - you fabricated this idea in your head. The problem is that you did this without first looking to Scripture. Now you're faced with the problem of actually learning that Scripture doesn't support your made up view. The right answer is to alter your view to align with Scripture. The wrong answer is to hold onto your false view and keep trying to twist Scripture to fit it.