Alright, well since you have decided to respond to me, I guess I will do so in kind, though you seem very good a twisting words or pulling assumptions out of thin air.
It is nothing personal. I am against any religious practice or belief that is not clearly defined in the Bible. For me, it would be like arguing against gravity or against how rain is wet. But you are free to believe whatever you like.
Once again, there is nothing that the Catholic Church or Orthodox Church teaches that goes against the bible.
First, you say there is no salvation in Mary and then you backtrack and say that your salvation is interwined with her. This is is just double talk. She either is a part of salvation in some way or she is not. Yes, or no. Seeing you are saying that salvation is interwined with Mary, then it is clear that you believe you cannot have salvation without Mary, right? I mean, I get it. You believe Mary just dispenses the grace or salvation from Jesus. But this would still make her a vital part or role in salvation in some way because she dispenses the grace or salvation from Jesus. This is still wrong. She was just a human. She cannot answer millions of prayers and pass out grace.
In fact, where in the Bible does it say that Mary can dispense the grace of Jesus? Where does the Bible say that salvation is interwined in Mary? Where does the Bible say that we can pray to Mary? It simply doesn't. So this would be an addition to Scripture. Scripture says Jesus is the only mediator between God and man.
Let me say this as plainly as I can. Salvation is found through Jesus, not Mary. Period, as Jesus is our Lord and Savior. Mary, who gave birth to Jesus, is intertwined in our Salvation because without Mary, Jesus as we know Him, would not have become man. It's really simple.
I never said that Mary dispenses anything from Jesus, where did you come up with that?? What I said was that Mary is the Mother of Jesus, and that Jesus performed His first miracle on behalf of His mother. Mary is only human, correct, but she is also our greatest boast as a race. God honors Mary in how she was greeted by the angle. "Hail Mary, full of grace, the Lord is with thee.", Jesus gave Mary to us (through John) while he was dying on the cross.
There have been plenty of confirmed sightings of Mary, the most recent I believe being Fatima. God uses Mary, Jesus honored Mary as His mother. She is clearly important and can pray for us.
Again, this is double talk. On the one hand, you are saying that you do not pray to the saints and on the other hand you are saying that you ask them to pray for you. Communication to the dead of any kind would be praying to them in some way. You are desiring something from them. This is prayer. The Bible again forbids contacting the dead. I remember even as a child that this was wrong. I remember telling my childhood friend (who was a Catholic) that He should just pray to Jesus directly and forget about praying to Mary. For
1 John 2:1-2 says we have an advocate named Jesus Christ that we can go to so as to confess sin (
1 John 1:9).
So you have always had a thing against Catholics? So thats who you are then, alright now this thread and your demeanor make sense.
"I remember even as a child" means nothing in a debate and it simply a strawman.
The Church has believed in the Communion of Saints since before the actual Bible was put together and declared divinely inspired. It is stated in the Apostles Creed. The Bible directs us to in Psalms 103: 20-21 and the beginning of Psalms 104.
Also we know they are there and pray for us as shown in Revelations 5:8.
Oh, really? It's that clear huh? You mean to tell me that the text says that you should receive from a priest a wafer that comes out of some kind of sunlike statue and you should drink wine out of a beautifully adorned cup thinking that Jesus is inside these elements in some way? Does the Bible clearly explain to me that we have to partake of the Lord's supper in order to be saved in other places? Or can the text also be read metaphorically and make sense, too? For me, when I read it literally it conflicts with the rest of Scripture. Jesus offered Himself once for our sins bodily. Yet, spiritually, you think Christ is re-sacrificing Himself over and over and over. Jesus said, it is finished.
You know, the more I read the more I realize that you are clueless in regards to the Catholic Faith. Which is fine, you can admit it.
Jesus says that we are to eat His flesh and drink His blood. When he spoke of this to His disciples, and many left, if He was just speaking figuratively why wouldn't He tell the disciples to come back?
Once again, John 6:53-56, Jesus is speaking very clearly, and is literal. Not metaphorically speaking.
God is outside of time, and as Catholics we believe that we are partaking in the Last Supper, when we have Communion. We are with Jesus and the apostles at the Last Supper.
No. This is not forgiving sins thru Him. This was merely saying that if a person repents of their sins to Jesus, that means the church body has the authority to say they are forgiven. If a person does not truly repent, a believer should be able to tell in certain cases and say that they have not truly repented of their sins to the Lord. This does not mean the church body has any power or authority to forgive sin. Only God can directly absolve sin. To include flawed man in the process of absolving sin does not make any sense. Only that which is clean (like God) can truly wash away sins (which is something that is dirty).
Wrong, because Jesus CLEARLY states "Peace be with you. As the Father has sent me, so I send you.” 22 When he had said this, he breathed on them and said to them, “Receive the Holy Spirit. 23 If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven them; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained.”
This states that the apostles had the power to retain sins, meaning that they are not forgiven. This power was given to them by Jesus himself, and has been passes down through the laying of hands from bishops to bishops. This power was not given to the entire Church body, but to the apostles.
No. Peter says Jesus is the Rock in
1 Peter 2:6-8. Also, Catholics today bow down and kiss a statue of Peter. In fact, they do this so much that the foot of the statue is worn out. Yet, when Cornelius fell down at Peter's feet and worshipped him, Peter said, “Stand up; I myself also am a man.” (
Acts 10:25-26).
Please explain this passage then, Matthew 16: 15-18 " 15 He said to them, “But who do you say that I am?” 16 Simon Peter answered, “You are the Messiah,c]">[
c] the Son of the living God.” 17 And Jesus answered him, “Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah! For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father in heaven. 18 And I tell you, you are Peter,d]">[
d] and on this rocke]">[
e] I will build my church, and the gates of Hades will not prevail against it."
Jesus renames Simon to Peter, which in Arabic is kepha, which directly translates to "rock", so Jesus is making Peter the earthly rock of His Church, the earthly head of His Church.
Over the course of this thread, you are clearly shown why self-interpretation of the Bible does not work, with the misunderstandings of confession, the eucharist, and Peter.