Why would it matter waht Lucifer was when it was translated into latin? The Bible wasn't written in latin. I'm not getting what you are saying?
Okay, let's start from the beginning. Here is Isaiah 14:12 from the KJV,
"
How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!"
This isn't about the devil. This is about the king of Babylon, a human being. This is the passage which people get the idea that Satan was once an angel named Lucifer. This passage isn't talking about the devil, it's talking about a human king, the king of Babylon, probably Nebuchadnezzar II.
The term "Lucifer" is Latin, the translators of the KJV didn't translate this word into English, they kept the word as it was found in the Latin Vulgate. They translated the passage from Hebrew into English, but used the word "lucifer" as it was found in the Vulgate.
"Lucifer" in Latin means "light-bringer".
Here is Isaiah 14:12 in the original Hebrew,
"אֵיךְ נָפַלְתָּ מִשָּׁמַיִם
הֵילֵל בֶּן־שָׁחַר נִגְדַּעְתָּ לָאָרֶץ חֹולֵשׁ עַל־גֹּויִֽם׃"
I've underlined and put in bold the word
heylel, this word in Hebrew referred to the planet Venus, the "morning star", the word
heylel comes from the verb
halal meaning "to shine" "to be bright", thus the word means "bright [thing]" in this case the meaning is "bright star" as in the planet Venus.
When translated into Greek in the Septuagint, here is the same passage,
"πῶς ἐξέπεσεν ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ ὁ
ἑωσφόρος ὁ πρωὶ ἀνατέλλων συνετρίβη εἰς τὴν γῆν ὁ ἀποστέλλων πρὸς πάντα τὰ ἔθνη"
I've again highlighted the word by bolding it and underlining it; the word is
heosphoros, literally "dawn-bringer", a variant of the word φωσφόρος, (
phosphoros "light-bringer") both refer to the planet Venus.
When this passage was translated into Latin it became,
"quomodo cecidisti de caelo
lucifer qui mane oriebaris corruisti in terram qui vulnerabas gentes"
Again, I've underlined and put the word in bold. The Latin word "lucifer" means "light-bringer", it is a direct literal translation of the Greek
phosphoros.
In the middle ages this passage was taken by many to be, in some sense, actually talking about the fall of Satan, and since in Western Europe in the middle ages Latin was the official language of the Church, the language of Scripture, the term "lucifer" was adopted and made into a proper name for the devil: Lucifer, the fallen angel.
This medieval idea was preserved in the KJV when the translators didn't translate the Hebrew word heylel, but simply inserted the Latin word "lucifer" there in the English text, making it a proper name. And with the popularity of works like the Divine Comedy by Dante, and Milton's Paradise Lost, it has continued to seep into popular consciousness that Satan, before he was Satan, was an angel in heaven named Lucifer.
But "Lucifer" was never a name for the devil, not biblically. There never existed an angel named "Lucifer", that's not a thing, it never was. It's a popular idea that exists in modern times because of a peculiar medieval interpretation of a passage in Isaiah which is condemning Nebuchadnezzar II of Babylon, a completely mortal human king.
Satan is
never called Lucifer in the Bible.
On the contrary, the term "Lucifer" was applied to Jesus Christ instead, as in 2 Peter 1:19,
"
Et habemus firmiorem propheticum sermonem: cui benefacitis attendentes quasi lucernæ lucenti in caliginoso donec dies elucescat, et lucifer oriatur in cordibus vestris:"
There were Christian leaders in the early church named Lucifer.
The idea that the devil is called "Lucifer" is very late, it is a medieval idea, it has no basis in Scripture.
-CryptoLutheran