Did Jesus die for our future sins?

bling

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If the passages are talking about "remembrance of sins" and purging the conscience of sin, wouldn't this have to include all sin in the mind, voluntary or involuntary? If the sacrifice doesn't atone for all known sin, it wouldn't do anything to relieve "remembrance" of sin, or to "purge the conscience". It would, in fact, do nothing at all.

Could you provide a passage that shows that the sacrifice is limited to a specific type of sin?

Here is the BIG problem under the Old Law: For the most part intentional sins directly against God (this would include things like picking up sticks for your fire on the Sabbath) had very severe “punishments” death most of the time but some were just permanent banishment. The person who committed these sins could repent, ask for forgiveness and God might forgive them if it was asked sincerely, but that did not reduce their sentence and the Jewish community was to kill or banish them.

Show me in the Old Law where intentional sins against God did not have to be severely punished?

You can read Lev. 5 and 6 especially but all of Lev. would be good to read to see which sins could be atoned for and also Hebrews 10:4 It is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins.

Try to find one passage in the Law that says intentional sins could be atoned for, since all intentional sins had severe punishments that had to be carried out no matter what the sinner did later.

Bottom line is these sacrifices according to the Law did not atone for intentional sins or do anything to “relieve” the punishment for intentional sins.

In “practice” the Jews could not follow the Law punishments (there would have been no Jews left, since all committed intentional sins). Who was without sin to cast the first stone? The annual atonement sacrifices did bring to remembrance all their sins and they could certainly ask for God’s forgiveness (like Jews in the past did [including King David]). There is the Law and there is what the prophets taught us about God’s Love, which is the same thing Jesus taught us about God’s Love.
 
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bling

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This idea of passing over their sins is more of God not holding them to account of their prior sins those who have placed their trust in Jesus Christ, so they have passed out of death which is God's righteous judgement of their sins into life, so their prior sins committed are no longer a consideration regarding them having eternal- everlasting life.

The verse dues not mention “those that place their faith in Jesus” God not holding them to account for prior sins, which would not make sense. God holds people to their sins unless they trust God/Jesus, repent and humbly seek forgiveness. The “Passing over sins” is something that was done in the past and not now for Christians.

A reading of Ro. 3:25 has Paul contrasting the way sins are handled after Christ went to the cross with how repented of forgiven sins were handled prior to the cross. Paul does not say “sins prior to the cross where handled the same way with timing being the only difference”, but talks about the difference being God passing over sins in the past which means God does not have to pass over sins with the cross now.
 
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bling

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I'm not certain I understand your question, as you have agreed with me.
Christ's life was one lived in perfect harmony with God's Law. You, myself, and everyone else on this planet is completely incapable of living that life. If we were, Christ's life and death would have been pointless. He lived the perfect life that is impossible for us to live, and died the death that we deserve (experiencing separation from the Father), taking the sins of the world upon himself. So when Paul says he has been crucified with Christ, he is referring to his sinful nature, as he was not physically next to Christ on another cross as your verbage has suggested. Our sins died at the cross with the Savior. So again, if Christ didn't live a perfect life, his death was pointless. If we were capable of living by the Law, his death was pointless. He lived the perfect life in our stead.

To begin with:



Atonement (propitiation) sacrifice can be for everyone with the ransom payment being offered but the kidnapper may refuse to accept the sacrifice, so it was made in vain for that kidnapper and the child is not freed?


Would God need anything to forgive a person’s sins or is it the sinner needing something to accept that forgiveness as pure charity?



I find the ransom analogy to be an excellent fit and I am not talking about the “Ransom Theory of Atonement”


Ransom analogy ( but is it an analogy because scripture describes it as a literal ransom payment) having:


1. Someone other than the captive paying the ransom.

2. The payment is a huge sacrificial payment for the payer who would personally prefer not to pay.

3. Since those that come to God must come as children, it is the children of God that go to the Father.

4. The payer cannot safely get his children any other way than making the payment.

5. The kidnapper is totally undeserving.

6. The kidnap can accept or reject the payment.



Go to Luke 15: 11-32 the prodigal son story to illustrate:


Who returned to the father, was it the son that rebelliously wished his father’s death so he could get his inheritance or was it the child of the father? (not the son that left, but the child of the father that was always there within)


We can only come to our Father as children, so who is keeping the nonbeliever in the unbelieving state (the kidnapper)? (The sinner himself)


There is the one ransom, but could there be many kidnappers and many children?


Who are the kidnappers?


Looking at verses in particular:


(NIV) Ro. 3:25 God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement, through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished—


“God presented” this might be better expressed as “God is offering” since it will later be received, not received or rejected on the contingency of some kind of “faith”. Instead of received it might better be translated as accepted (with the option of being rejected or not accepted).

“Sacrifice of atonement” is described by Jesus, Paul, Peter, John and the Hebrew writer as the “ransom payment” or just “ransom”. So God is offering a ransom payment to be accepted by those with faith or rejected by those refusing or just not accepted by those lacking faith.


A huge part of that ransom payment that especially applies to those that are already Christians is the life giving cleansing blood of Christ. Christ and God would have personally preferred that blood remained in Christ’s veins, but I needed it given up by Christ to flow over both my outside and my heart to know, experience, “trust” and feel I am cleansed and made alive. So Christ willingly gave up His blood for me and because of me. This is an overwhelming tragedy I insisted on to believe: I was made holy, righteous and stand justified. Without knowing and feeling this blood flowing over my heart, I might question my cleansing?


“Demonstrate his righteousness” God did not become righteous, but just showed the righteousness He has always had. (God’s justice/ holiness/being right) comes with the atoning sacrifice that includes the life giving cleansing blood showing God’s righteousness/justice in a very particular way; by resolving the huge problem that existed under the Old Covenant. That huge problem in the Old Covenant was with the handling of intentional sins that where committed, repented of, and which the individual sought forgiveness from God for doing (and God forgave without justly disciplining the sinner [thus not showing His righteousness through His disciplining]). These sins could be forgiven by God, but there was no way to fairly/justly discipline (punish) the sinner and still have the sinner live in the Promised Land. God did have fair/just punishments (discipline) for these sins, but the Jews could not follow through with them, since all Jews deserved to be treated similarly (there would be no one left in the Promised Land).


“in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished” Instead of “unpunished” I would translate that Greek word to be “undisciplined”.

“because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished”, shows the contrast between before and after the cross. This is not saying: before the cross, sins are now being punished by Christ going to the cross, but that they were left unpunished. If they are being handled the “same way” as sins after the cross there would be no contrast? (And there are lots of other problems with this reasoning.) There is no “punishment” (disciplining for intentional sins) before the cross and there is “punishment” (disciplining of God’s children) with the cross.


Any good parent realizes the need for not just forgiving their rebellious disobedient child, but to also see to the child’s fair/just/loving discipline if at all possible, but under the Old Covenant there was no “fair/just/loving discipline” so God could not show His justice/righteousness except to point out in the Law what really should happen, but that is not “good” disciplining, the child can almost feel they got away with something.


By my coming to the realization of my forcing Christ to be tortured, humiliated and murdered, because of my personal sins I experience a death blow to my heart (Acts 2: 37) the worst possible experience I can have and still live (That is also the most sever disciplining I can experience and still live). Thus I know God is my loving concerned Parent (since He at great cost has seen to my disciplining). I know how significant my sins really are; I can put those sins behind me after being disciplined. Since God and Jesus shared in my disciplining “I am crucified with Christ” (a teaching moment) our relationship is even greater than before my transgressing.

What is the benefit/value for us that we would want to accept the ransom payment of Christ’s torture, humiliation and murder?

What value benefit did it have for those 3000 on the day of Pentecost?

Would those 3000 have become baptized believers on the day of Pentecost if Peter had not been able to say: Acts 2:36 “…this Jesus whom you crucified”?

So for those 3000, their crucifying Christ (ransom payment/atoning sacrifice) resulted in them becoming baptized believers on the day of Pentecost! Did it have value for them?

I have written a parable to help explain how atonement works:


There is battle going on and you as an old man leave your post. The crime is punishable by 40 lashes or equivalent, but that will kill you. Your young innocent grandson offers to take your place and explains to the judge (general) that; 40 lashes on him will cause you tremendous pain, and anguish equivalent to him being lashed. The judge (general) refuses because that would not be just to punish an innocent for the guilty (everyone knows that). The innocent grandson then says: “I will go over to the enemy’s camp for my father’s sake and they will beat me and imprison me until the end of the war”. The Judge (general) cannot stop the young man from doing such a thing and knows this will really hurt the grandfather when you find out, so the judge will not have to punish the grandfather (justice has been served). When you do find out, you plead for the son’s return, but it is to later and besides; there is really no other way for you to be punished and live.


One of the questions that comes up with my theory of atonement is:


“How does a little heart ping equal a person spending eternity in hell?”

Answer:

1. It is not a little heart ping, but the worst thing a person can experience here on earth and continue to live Acts 2:37.

2. Where does the Bible really teach those in hell have an eternal existence?

3. Does God’s discipline of His repentant child have to be “equal” to the person going to hell to be fair? Does the repentant rebellious disobedient child of a wonderful earthly parent need make “pay” in full for the discipline to be fair/just discipline (can he really repay the cost for his intentionally rebellion?)

4. Those in hell are guilty of the offence of not humbling themselves enough to trust God and repent, so they have that added offence.


This will get us started if you really want to know.
 
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John Hyperspace

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Here is the BIG problem under the Old Law: For the most part intentional sins directly against God (this would include things like picking up sticks for your fire on the Sabbath) had very severe “punishments” death most of the time but some were just permanent banishment. The person who committed these sins could repent, ask for forgiveness and God might forgive them if it was asked sincerely, but that did not reduce their sentence and the Jewish community was to kill or banish them.

Show me in the Old Law where intentional sins against God did not have to be severely punished?

You can read Lev. 5 and 6 especially but all of Lev. would be good to read to see which sins could be atoned for and also Hebrews 10:4 It is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins.

Try to find one passage in the Law that says intentional sins could be atoned for, since all intentional sins had severe punishments that had to be carried out no matter what the sinner did later.

Bottom line is these sacrifices according to the Law did not atone for intentional sins or do anything to “relieve” the punishment for intentional sins.

In “practice” the Jews could not follow the Law punishments (there would have been no Jews left, since all committed intentional sins). Who was without sin to cast the first stone? The annual atonement sacrifices did bring to remembrance all their sins and they could certainly ask for God’s forgiveness (like Jews in the past did [including King David]). There is the Law and there is what the prophets taught us about God’s Love, which is the same thing Jesus taught us about God’s Love.

Doesn't the annual atonement offering remove "all sins"? As I'm seeing at Leviticus 16:21, Leviticus 16:30, Leviticus 16:34 "all their iniquities" "all their transgressions in all their sins" "clean from all your sins" "all their sins once a year"? I'm not understanding why you're making a difference between "sin through ignorance" and "sin not through ignorance"? In the personal sins, isn't Leviticus 6:2-7 not done "in ignorance"? Leviticus 19:20-22; Numbers 5:6-8, Numbers 16:41-47 shows atonement of sins in action; I understand that their are laws concerning sins through ignorance; but not sure why you would think the annual sacrifice was not for "all" sins? As well as these other examples?

I'm also not really seeing what good a sacrifice for unintentional sin is for in relieving the conscience of guilt of sin, or "remembrance", when people are really only going to feel guilty because of sin they actually know about. I'm not meaning to offend; the notion simply seems, without reason. Are you meaning to say that the sacrifice of Christ only covers sin which is committed through ignorance of the law? Am I misunderstanding?
 
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bling

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Doesn't the annual atonement offering remove "all sins"? As I'm seeing at Leviticus 16:21, Leviticus 16:30, Leviticus 16:34 "all their iniquities" "all their transgressions in all their sins" "clean from all your sins" "all their sins once a year"? I'm not understanding why you're making a difference between "sin through ignorance" and "sin not through ignorance"? In the personal sins, isn't Leviticus 6:2-7 not done "in ignorance"? Leviticus 19:20-22; Numbers 5:6-8, Numbers 16:41-47 shows atonement of sins in action; I understand that their are laws concerning sins through ignorance; but not sure why you would think the annual sacrifice was not for "all" sins? As well as these other examples?

I'm also not really seeing what good a sacrifice for unintentional sin is for in relieving the conscience of guilt of sin, or "remembrance", when people are really only going to feel guilty because of sin they actually know about. I'm not meaning to offend; the notion simply seems, without reason. Are you meaning to say that the sacrifice of Christ only covers sin which is committed through ignorance of the law? Am I misunderstanding?

You ask: Doesn't the annual atonement offering remove "all sins"? The answer is “NO”!

By the Law any person that intentionally sinned against God is dead or banished prior to any atonement sacrifice, so in theory only Jews with unintentional sins are there for the Day of Atonement sacrifice.

Atonement is a kind of fair/just “disciplining” and is done instead of taking the punishment, but Jewish sacrifices could only atone for very minor sins (unintentional sins).

Just think about it like this: If a person under the law did something as “minor” as picking up sticks on the Sabbath, he must be stoned right away. There was no “atonement” for that sin and all other intentional sins directly against God, just punishments.

Leviticus gives you all the sins that can be atoned, so all the others only have the punishment given in Exodus, Leviticus and Deut.

Lev. 4 explains in detail the sin offering, but starts with:


The Lord said to Moses, 2 “Say to the Israelites: ‘When anyone sins unintentionally and does what is forbidden in any of the Lord’s commands—

NOW in practice the Jew did not have the will to kill and banish all their brothers (since all have sinned intentionally as some time), so all the Jews on the Day of Atonement were big time sinners, but they knew the sacrifice was not atoning for their intentional sins, but would bring to remembrance how sinful they were and how much they were in need of a better system, really a system that did not rely on themselves, but relied on God’s Love (mercy/grace/forgiveness/charity).
 
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If we believe in Him, we have our sins forgiven because of His sacrifice. Does this extend to future sins too?

Yes We are crucified with Christ and His righteousness is imputed to us

I hate to bring up the obvious but at the time Christ died all our sins were "future sins"
 
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John Hyperspace

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You ask: Doesn't the annual atonement offering remove "all sins"? The answer is “NO”!

By the Law any person that intentionally sinned against God is dead or banished prior to any atonement sacrifice, so in theory only Jews with unintentional sins are there for the Day of Atonement sacrifice.

Atonement is a kind of fair/just “disciplining” and is done instead of taking the punishment, but Jewish sacrifices could only atone for very minor sins (unintentional sins).

Just think about it like this: If a person under the law did something as “minor” as picking up sticks on the Sabbath, he must be stoned right away. There was no “atonement” for that sin and all other intentional sins directly against God, just punishments.

Leviticus gives you all the sins that can be atoned, so all the others only have the punishment given in Exodus, Leviticus and Deut.

Lev. 4 explains in detail the sin offering, but starts with:


The Lord said to Moses, 2 “Say to the Israelites: ‘When anyone sins unintentionally and does what is forbidden in any of the Lord’s commands—

NOW in practice the Jew did not have the will to kill and banish all their brothers (since all have sinned intentionally as some time), so all the Jews on the Day of Atonement were big time sinners, but they knew the sacrifice was not atoning for their intentional sins, but would bring to remembrance how sinful they were and how much they were in need of a better system, really a system that did not rely on themselves, but relied on God’s Love (mercy/grace/forgiveness/charity).

I suppose we'll have to agree to disagree on this one. I clearly see the phrases "all sins" "all transgressions" etc; so if someone picked up sticks on the Sabbath, and wasn't stoned to death for it; then both his sin and the sin of the ones who didn't stone, would be atoned for on Yom Kippur, since that annual sacrifice clears "all sins": this notion of yours would also imply that the sacrifice of Christ was only for unintentional sins; then what possible good would that sacrifice be for sinful men since it is not clearing them of any relevant sin (how is the entire world still not as guilty as before?), and, how could that sacrifice possibly purify the conscience and cease any remembrance of sin? I don't believe it's good enough to point at one verse which does speak of atonement for unintentional sin, then blanket that concept across the entire system of sacrifice which includes "all sins" and then to even apply that one verse to the sacrifice of Christ Himself as "insufficient for known sins": the entire idea is wholly disagreeable.
 
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Butch5

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If we believe in Him, we have our sins forgiven because of His sacrifice. Does this extend to future sins too?

Future sins are not pre-forgiven. Peter reminds his readers that they were purged of their old sins.

8 For if these things be in you, and abound, they make you that ye shall neither be barren nor unfruitful in the knowledge of our Lord Jesus Christ.
9 But he that lacketh these things is blind, and cannot see afar off, and hath forgotten that he was purged from his old sins.
10 Wherefore the rather, brethren, give diligence to make your calling and election sure: for if ye do these things, ye shall never fall: (2 Pet. 1:8-10 KJV)

The apostle John tells his readers that if they confess their sins God is faithful and just to forgive them their sins. This indicates that sins committed after becoming a Christians do require that one take them to the Lord, thus there are not forgiven before committed.

9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. (1 Jn. 1:9 KJV)


However, it is because one has believed that all sins can be forgiven.
 
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Butch5

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I'm not certain I understand your question, as you have agreed with me.
Christ's life was one lived in perfect harmony with God's Law. You, myself, and everyone else on this planet is completely incapable of living that life. If we were, Christ's life and death would have been pointless. He lived the perfect life that is impossible for us to live, and died the death that we deserve (experiencing separation from the Father), taking the sins of the world upon himself. So when Paul says he has been crucified with Christ, he is referring to his sinful nature, as he was not physically next to Christ on another cross as your verbage has suggested. Our sins died at the cross with the Savior. So again, if Christ didn't live a perfect life, his death was pointless. If we were capable of living by the Law, his death was pointless. He lived the perfect life in our stead.

I'm not sure how you think that if we could live by the Law Christ's death was pointless. Why would God make a law that couldn't be lived by? On the other hand, how much better is Christ, if out of all mankind He is the only one who actually did it? How great is He if He alone put aside His own desires and wants to live according to God's commands when all of the rest of mankind is so selfish that they don't? Doesn't that make Him the greatest man to ever live?

Your post here suggests to me that you hold to the Penal model of the atonement. I don't hold that view, so, I see how it could be that even if a man could live perfectly by the Law Christ's sacrifice would still be absolutely necessary.
 
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bling

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I suppose we'll have to agree to disagree on this one. I clearly see the phrases "all sins" "all transgressions" etc; so if someone picked up sticks on the Sabbath, and wasn't stoned to death for it; then both his sin and the sin of the ones who didn't stone, would be atoned for on Yom Kippur, since that annual sacrifice clears "all sins": this notion of yours would also imply that the sacrifice of Christ was only for unintentional sins; then what possible good would that sacrifice be for sinful men since it is not clearing them of any relevant sin (how is the entire world still not as guilty as before?), and, how could that sacrifice possibly purify the conscience and cease any remembrance of sin? I don't believe it's good enough to point at one verse which does speak of atonement for unintentional sin, then blanket that concept across the entire system of sacrifice which includes "all sins" and then to even apply that one verse to the sacrifice of Christ Himself as "insufficient for known sins": the entire idea is wholly disagreeable.

Can we agree: “Under the old Law God gave the Israelites very severe punishments (death or banishment) for intentional sins directly against Him like picking up sticks on the Sabbath”?

Can we agree: “unintentional sins should and would have much less punishments associated with their atonement sacrifices since they are not rebellious disobedience directly against God”? This is what comes out in Lev., since only unintentional sins had atonements listed specifically and there is obviously a distinction made between some sins.

Think about it: “If intentional sins could be handled annually by the priest making a sacrifices for all the people, than the punishment for unintentional sins are greater than intentional sins, since with unintentional sins have individuals personally give up a Lamb, journey to Jerusalem, spend hours in line waiting to have your lamb taken, and doing this as often as they committed an unintentional sin.”

What you are suggesting is these severe punishments could be scripturally avoided by the Yom Kippur sacrifice of atonement, so no one would ever have to go through any severe punishment, since everything could be handled by the Yom Kippur sacrifice?

If that is the case why did Jesus not bring up that alternative for the woman caught in adultery?

Does your conclusion lessen the significance of sin?

No way am I implying, “that the sacrifice of Christ was only for unintentional sins”, animals and even a bag of flour could be the atonement sacrifice for unintentional sins, but rebellious disobedience sins needed something hugely greater. That is the reason Christ had to go to the cross. You are the one suggesting the Yom Kippur sacrifice took care of “all” sins including rebellious disobedience, so the question for you would be: why would Jesus need to replace a working system?

I am saying the “sacrificial system” under the Old Law did not take care of intentional sins at all, so Christ was needed.
 
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John Hyperspace

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Can we agree: “Under the old Law God gave the Israelites very severe punishments (death or banishment) for intentional sins directly against Him like picking up sticks on the Sabbath”?

I do agree that there is a severe punishment for most intentional sins. But I did cite passages which speak of atonement of intentional sins such as Leviticus 6:2-7, Leviticus 19:20-22, etc.

Can we agree: “unintentional sins should and would have much less punishments associated with their atonement sacrifices since they are not rebellious disobedience directly against God”? This is what comes out in Lev., since only unintentional sins had atonements listed specifically and there is obviously a distinction made between some sins.

But again, Leviticus 6:2-7 is intentional sin, is it not?

Think about it: “If intentional sins could be handled annually by the priest making a sacrifices for all the people, than the punishment for unintentional sins are greater than intentional sins, since with unintentional sins have individuals personally give up a Lamb, journey to Jerusalem, spend hours in line waiting to have your lamb taken, and doing this as often as they committed an unintentional sin.”

I wouldn't agree because I don't believe you're taking into consideration the "guilty conscience" factor. Unintentional sins (and, some intentional sins) could be remedied immediately if so desired. This would then immediately clean the "evil conscience" of the sinner. If most intentional sin could not be immediately remedied, then they sinner would have to wait for Yom Kippur. He would have to bear his guilty conscience in torment for what could be a long time. He would have to fret and worry about, dying before Yom Kippur, or some form of judgment event occurring before he was able to be atoned. A person who did not immediately make atonement for unintentional sin, would also have to wait for Yom Kippur. If you take into account the weight of an "evil conscience" in the delay of Yom Kippur, it is by far a more severe punishment than being able to immediately make atonement which is provided for unintentional (and, some intentional) sins.

What you are suggesting is these severe punishments could be scripturally avoided by the Yom Kippur sacrifice of atonement, so no one would ever have to go through any severe punishment, since everything could be handled by the Yom Kippur sacrifice?

If the severe punishment wasn't enacted, then those failing to do so would also suffer the extreme weight of an "evil conscience" as the held their breath waiting, and, waiting, for Yom Kippur.

If that is the case why did Jesus not bring up that alternative for the woman caught in adultery?

I don't understand this question.

Does your conclusion lessen the significance of sin?

I don't think it does. If so, how so?

No way am I implying, “that the sacrifice of Christ was only for unintentional sins”, animals and even a bag of flour could be the atonement sacrifice for unintentional sins, but rebellious disobedience sins needed something hugely greater. That is the reason Christ had to go to the cross. You are the one suggesting the Yom Kippur sacrifice took care of “all” sins including rebellious disobedience, so the question for you would be: why would Jesus need to replace a working system?

So that there would be no more "remembrance of sin" in annual atonement. There would be no more bearing an "evil conscience" year-round, waiting for Yom Kippur to come. The sacrifice of Christ cleared all sin, and therefore, all "evil conscience" one and for all. Thus, no more remembrance of sin: Hebrews 10:1-3 so the sacrifice of Jesus is able to make the "comers thereunto" perfect, whereas the Sinai law could not: Hebrews 10:14, Hebrews 10:17-18 which has to do with the purging of the conscience due to sin: Hebrews 9:9, Hebrews 10:2, Hebrews 10:22

I am saying the “sacrificial system” under the Old Law did not take care of intentional sins at all, so Christ was needed.

I don't agree; but that Christ was needed to end sacrifice once and for all; the pay in full the debt of all sin, intentional or unintentional, so that we who come to Him may be made perfect, at liberty from a guilt conscience through sin in the flesh.
 
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stuart lawrence

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If we believe in Him, we have our sins forgiven because of His sacrifice. Does this extend to future sins too?
The apostle Paul tells us the christian has righteousness before God apart from observing the law. If you fail to observe the law you commit sin, for sin is transgression of the law(1john3:4)
Therefore a christian can only have a righteousness before God apart from observing the law if Jesus died for all their sins, past, present and future
 
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I'm not sure how you think that if we could live by the Law Christ's death was pointless. Why would God make a law that couldn't be lived by? On the other hand, how much better is Christ, if out of all mankind He is the only one who actually did it? How great is He if He alone put aside His own desires and wants to live according to God's commands when all of the rest of mankind is so selfish that they don't? Doesn't that make Him the greatest man to ever live?

Your post here suggests to me that you hold to the Penal model of the atonement. I don't hold that view, so, I see how it could be that even if a man could live perfectly by the Law Christ's sacrifice would still be absolutely necessary.
If a person could live perfectly by the law they would never commit sin. Therefore a saviour from sin would not be necessary, and Christs death would be needless
 
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YouAreAwesome

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If a person could live perfectly by the law they would never commit sin. Therefore a saviour from sin would not be necessary, and Christs death would be needless
Hmmm, have you thought about how Jesus said even if you look at a woman in lust you have sinned? Yet this was not in the Mosaic Law.
 
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stuart lawrence

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Hmmm, have you thought about how Jesus said even if you look at a woman in lust you have sinned? Yet this was not in the Mosaic Law.

For I would not have known lust except the law had said: Thou shalt not covet.
Rom 7:7
 
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YouAreAwesome

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For I would not have known lust except the law had said: Thou shalt not covet.
Rom 7:7
What about Matthew 19:21. Where does it say in the Mosaic Law to sell everything? Jesus answered, "If you want to be perfect, go, sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me."
 
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stuart lawrence

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What about Matthew 19:21. Where does it say in the Mosaic Law to sell everything? Jesus answered, "If you want to be perfect, go, sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me."
You need to discern the difference between breaking the law and therefore committing sin and failing to surrender everything for Christ.
The bible tells us:
Sin is the transgression of the law 1john3:4

That is the biblical definition of sin.
 
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