Hello and salaam alaikum.
I was wondering if the Muslim posters here could please address some questions I have about these verses, would be much appreciated.
6:131
This is because your Lord would not destroy the (populations of) towns for their wrong-doing (i.e. associating others in worship along with Allah) while their people were unaware (so the Messengers were sent).
11:117
And your Lord would never destroy the towns wrongfully, while their people were right-doers.
28:59
And never will your Lord destroy the towns (populations) until He sends to their mother town a Messenger reciting to them Our Verses. And never would We destroy the towns unless the people thereof are Zalimun (polytheists, wrong-doers, disbelievers in the Oneness of Allah, oppressors and tyrants).
The verses below are from the Mohsin Khan translation. Some other translators translate them as he does (in the present), while others in the past tense, like Shakir.
Are these verses referring to past events only or also today? Do Muslims believe God still destroys communities and towns for rejecting Islam and being sinful, or did He only do this up to the time of Muhammad?
26:28,29 states:
And never did We destroy a township but it had its warners
By way of reminder, and We have never been unjust.
What does it mean "We have never been unjust"?
I also see also 11:117 that states that God would never destroy towns "wrongfully". What does this mean, and why would that be connected with "while their people were right-doers"? Is the implication that it would be unjust of God to destroy towns and villages filled with people who do the right thing?
Lastly, what is the verse below a reference to?
17:16
And when We decide to destroy a town (population), We (first) send a definite order (to obey Allah and be righteous) to those among them [or We (first) increase in number those of its population] who lead a life of luxury. Then, they transgress therein, and thus the word (of torment) is justified against it (them). Then We destroy it with complete destruction.
Sounds like before a town is destroyed, its people are warned first? Again, is this a reference to only events before the life of Muhammad or also afterwards?
Many thanks
I was wondering if the Muslim posters here could please address some questions I have about these verses, would be much appreciated.
6:131
This is because your Lord would not destroy the (populations of) towns for their wrong-doing (i.e. associating others in worship along with Allah) while their people were unaware (so the Messengers were sent).
11:117
And your Lord would never destroy the towns wrongfully, while their people were right-doers.
28:59
And never will your Lord destroy the towns (populations) until He sends to their mother town a Messenger reciting to them Our Verses. And never would We destroy the towns unless the people thereof are Zalimun (polytheists, wrong-doers, disbelievers in the Oneness of Allah, oppressors and tyrants).
The verses below are from the Mohsin Khan translation. Some other translators translate them as he does (in the present), while others in the past tense, like Shakir.
Are these verses referring to past events only or also today? Do Muslims believe God still destroys communities and towns for rejecting Islam and being sinful, or did He only do this up to the time of Muhammad?
26:28,29 states:
And never did We destroy a township but it had its warners
By way of reminder, and We have never been unjust.
What does it mean "We have never been unjust"?
I also see also 11:117 that states that God would never destroy towns "wrongfully". What does this mean, and why would that be connected with "while their people were right-doers"? Is the implication that it would be unjust of God to destroy towns and villages filled with people who do the right thing?
Lastly, what is the verse below a reference to?
17:16
And when We decide to destroy a town (population), We (first) send a definite order (to obey Allah and be righteous) to those among them [or We (first) increase in number those of its population] who lead a life of luxury. Then, they transgress therein, and thus the word (of torment) is justified against it (them). Then We destroy it with complete destruction.
Sounds like before a town is destroyed, its people are warned first? Again, is this a reference to only events before the life of Muhammad or also afterwards?
Many thanks
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