You've been more patient that most. I added the qualifying statement because some want all the information up front before the discussion begins and some are OK with letting it unfold through the course of the discussion. I prefer the latter because I find it difficult to anticipate everything that might be necessary.
However, there have been cases where I tried giving everything up front and then I'm accused of posting an incomprehensible wall of text. Or I tried the latter and then I'm accused of information hiding. I just want to be as clear as possible about the nature of the discussion.
That's because I actually care to discuss the matter. I don't really have a preference, as long as there is clarity. A wall of text doesn't phase me. I'd almost rather that than letting things unfold as it seems that leaves more room for misunderstanding.
If that's all it is to you, that's fine. If you go somewhere like the Stanford encyclopedia you get a much lengthier tome:
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/incompatibilism-arguments/
Well yeah, incompatibilism is simply the view determinism and free will are mutually exclusive. Of course there is more to it than that, but on the surface, that's really all it seems to be. I am sure there is your own additional baggage that comes with your idea of incompatibilism, too.
For example, what type of "free will" do you mean? Libertarian free will?
Compatibilist free will. The idea that, as long as there are no forces or factors that prevent us from acting how want, or coerces us into action, we are free. I also take note a type of 'mental freedom' in that we need to understand our reasons for acting to be free as well.
I wasn't explicitly asking you to define "determine", but it will probably help us that you did. I'm OK with adjective modifiers (logical determinism, causal determinism, etc.). My complaint was against those who use multiple definitions without modifiers as if they are the same thing.
And I understand that, but as you said, I figured that explanation would help our discussion.
I need some clarification on this. I would agree to the phrase "God knows all our future options" (plural).
I too agree with this statement, although this was not what I was suggesting.
But, if you mean God knows what our future choice (singular) will be from among those options, I would disagree with that as a universal statement. To me that is where the logical impossibility enters in, thereby making it meaningless to claim God is not omniscient if he doesn't know those impossibilities.
That is what I meant, and of course that is where we disagree. I don't find a reasonable explanation for why it is impossible for God to foreknow what our future choice will be (singular), if He does indeed foreknow of all of our future options. And even more so when He does in fact foreknow of certain future choices.
You seem to be thinking of "future" as a single thing - determining the future means determining all events for all future time. I don't.
If you want to say "fixed" as "single" then sure. There is but one future that will unfold as it is.
The future is a collection of possible things, and so it is possible to know and determine some future events while not determining or not knowing other future events.
And this is just another point of disagreement. This is also where I believe the fallacy may come into play, and where the confusion lies. You're claiming an exception (God does not know and does not determine some things) be applied to a specific case (God has foreknowledge), without proper justification of why that case deserves an exemption.
Why is it that God only knows and determines some things, and not others?
That might explain your confusion with the above, because I wasn't saying this.
Not really. I thought you were trying to say the future is not knowable, as it is logically impossible to know something that which cannot be. I thought that from your remarks: The only reason I would say God doesn't know the answer to the question is because there is nothing to know about a meaningless statement.
Whatever God knows of the future he knows. It will happen. So, whatever he told the prophets of the future was something causally determined to happen.
Though, does what will happen in future happen because God foreknows of it? Consider again the definition of causal determinism, and how it is connected to agency. What He foretold the prophets did not happen yet. It was not through agency that God determined Christ' coming when He foretold the prophets. Was it? Key word foretold. The statement, "Christ will come" was true plenty before it happened, making the determined factor that of the logical.
I am distinguishing that from what is not necessary for God to fulfill his will.
But how do you know what is necessary and what is not?
If it is not necessary, he need not know it.
Though, this does not imply God cannot know it. Just because something is unecessary doesn't make it unkowable. And if not unknowable, what is there to say that He doesn't know the unecessary?
If he need not know it, he may decide to not causally determine a future event.
If something is not causally determined, does that mean it cannot be logically determined? If you say it does, then how do you explain the matter of future contingents concerning the prophets; God did not act yet as to bring Christ, yet as the event had not taken place yet or was not widely known did not make it false at the time or any other time. In fact, the statement, "Christ is coming" was true back then before it took place. It was true as God foreknew of it, and as it was no lie as He foretold the prohpets. If you say that doesn't mean such, we agree foreknowledge in and of itself is deterministic in the logical sense.
If we can come to terms with the idea that foreknowledge is deterministic, the question of libertarianism free will becomes more troublesome as then before as it was that no causal determinism = free will, which does not account for logical determinism. And so the question arises:
If he doesn't causally determine a future event, our will is unbound to make a choice.
So what if He logically determines a future event? Is our free will nullified? If so, how?
Hmm. If that is just a way of saying, "I don't know," that's fine. If it's anything else I'd like to know why you found it necessary to create a 3rd option beyond the two I offered in order to answer my question.
Well I was thinking that played along the lines of "the way God created our universe" or whatever exactly you said there.