I'm currently reading through the Tanach, just having finished 1 Kings, and I suppose this passage has been the most confusing/troubling thus far.
I understand the prophesy is showing that the evil king will come to his end. However, my question is concerning how it seems that God is using deceit to execute justice. My initial thought is this is somewhat of a contradiction...considering how the satan was cursed because deception was at his core. I also think of Heb. 6:18/Num. 23:19 where God cannot lie, even though I know it seems God himself is not really doing the deceiving in this 1Kings prophesy. I just don't understand why He would allow this method to execute justice.
I'm using a Artscroll Series Stone Edition Tanach that has rabbinical commentary and what not, and they had no comment on this passage. I haven't looked up any commentary elsewhere either.
I'm curious to see how a MJ views this, as well as any Orthodox Jew (if there might be one floating around here or if one of you knows how they commonly see this passage).
Also, is this a frequent point of contempt/discussion in your community? Or am I just way off base/over-looking something.
Thanks for your time.
I understand the prophesy is showing that the evil king will come to his end. However, my question is concerning how it seems that God is using deceit to execute justice. My initial thought is this is somewhat of a contradiction...considering how the satan was cursed because deception was at his core. I also think of Heb. 6:18/Num. 23:19 where God cannot lie, even though I know it seems God himself is not really doing the deceiving in this 1Kings prophesy. I just don't understand why He would allow this method to execute justice.
I'm using a Artscroll Series Stone Edition Tanach that has rabbinical commentary and what not, and they had no comment on this passage. I haven't looked up any commentary elsewhere either.
I'm curious to see how a MJ views this, as well as any Orthodox Jew (if there might be one floating around here or if one of you knows how they commonly see this passage).
Also, is this a frequent point of contempt/discussion in your community? Or am I just way off base/over-looking something.
Thanks for your time.