Contradictions in the Bible

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Nihilist Virus

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Yes Jesus comes from the House of David. His royal blood comes through both the line of Solomon and the line of Nathan.

You seem to have forgotten to address my claim that Jesus comes from the line of Jehoiakim. Please see Matthew 1:11-12, which says,

And Josias begat Jechonias and his brethren, about the time they were carried away to Babylon:

And after they were brought to Babylon, Jechonias begat Salathiel; and Salathiel begat Zorobabel;


Observe that:

1. Josias is Josiah.

2. Jeconias is Jehoiachin/Jeconiah/Coniah. All three of these are the same person: reference 1 Chronicles 3:16, Jeremiah 22:24, 2 Kings 24:6, and 2 Chronicles 36:9.

As you recall, Jehoiachin is the son of Jehoiakim (1 Chronicles 3:16) and Jehoiakim is cursed (Jeremiah 36:30).

The author of Matthew leaves Jehoaikim's name out of the genealogy, but Jehoiakim is in there because he is his father's (Josiah's) son (obviously). I think the author of Matthew does this intentionally, just like how he improperly cites Isaiah 7:14 as prophecy of the "virgin birth" in a way that can only be construed as deliberate deception.


Yes you have some serious misunderstandings. But that's ok, you are not a theologian.

Christians have a teaching office when people ask questions such as your contentions.

The Christians here have pointed you in the right direction.

Your Chicago statement is absurd. It rests upon the unverifiable assertion that the original manuscripts were inerrant. It is nothing more than an agreed upon statement of faith, which - last I checked - proves nothing.
 
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redleghunter

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You seem to have forgotten to address my claim that Jesus comes from the line of Jehoiakim. Please see Matthew 1:11-12, which says,

And Josias begat Jechonias and his brethren, about the time they were carried away to Babylon:

And after they were brought to Babylon, Jechonias begat Salathiel; and Salathiel begat Zorobabel;


Observe that:

1. Josias is Josiah.

2. Jeconias is Jehoiachin/Jeconiah/Coniah. All three of these are the same person: reference 1 Chronicles 3:16, Jeremiah 22:24, 2 Kings 24:6, and 2 Chronicles 36:9.

As you recall, Jehoiachin is the son of Jehoiakim (1 Chronicles 3:16) and Jehoiakim is cursed (Jeremiah 36:30).

The author of Matthew leaves Jehoaikim's name out of the genealogy, but Jehoiakim is in there because he is his father's (Josiah's) son (obviously). I think the author of Matthew does this intentionally, just like how he improperly cites Isaiah 7:14 as prophecy of the "virgin birth" in a way that can only be construed as deliberate deception.




Your Chicago statement is absurd. It rests upon the unverifiable assertion that the original manuscripts were inerrant. It is nothing more than an agreed upon statement of faith, which - last I checked - proves nothing.

Or the omission of Jehoiakim could be the use of "telescoping" the genealogy leading up to Joseph. Such methods were used in the Semitic cultures. Greeks too.

Plus I already mentioned the fail safe to any interruption. Jesus is of the royal blood line of David from the line of Nathan as well.


Explain the deception of the virgin birth.
 
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redleghunter

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You seem to have forgotten to address my claim that Jesus comes from the line of Jehoiakim. Please see Matthew 1:11-12, which says,

And Josias begat Jechonias and his brethren, about the time they were carried away to Babylon:

And after they were brought to Babylon, Jechonias begat Salathiel; and Salathiel begat Zorobabel;


Observe that:

1. Josias is Josiah.

2. Jeconias is Jehoiachin/Jeconiah/Coniah. All three of these are the same person: reference 1 Chronicles 3:16, Jeremiah 22:24, 2 Kings 24:6, and 2 Chronicles 36:9.

As you recall, Jehoiachin is the son of Jehoiakim (1 Chronicles 3:16) and Jehoiakim is cursed (Jeremiah 36:30).

The author of Matthew leaves Jehoaikim's name out of the genealogy, but Jehoiakim is in there because he is his father's (Josiah's) son (obviously). I think the author of Matthew does this intentionally, just like how he improperly cites Isaiah 7:14 as prophecy of the "virgin birth" in a way that can only be construed as deliberate deception.




Your Chicago statement is absurd. It rests upon the unverifiable assertion that the original manuscripts were inerrant. It is nothing more than an agreed upon statement of faith, which - last I checked - proves nothing.

The Chicago statement is not absurd. I gathered you had a predisposition towards Biblical scholarship, so your answer is not surprising.
 
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Nihilist Virus

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Or the omission of Jehoiakim could be the use of "telescoping" the genealogy leading up to Joseph. Such methods were used in the Semitic cultures. Greeks too.

I am aware of the meaning of "beget."

My problem is that the author of Matthew is leaving out something that would be addressed by any honest person.

Plus I already mentioned the fail safe to any interruption. Jesus is of the royal blood line of David from the line of Nathan as well.

How is this a failsafe? What on earth are you talking about? How does this fix the fact that Jesus is from a cursed line?


Explain the deception of the virgin birth.

I covered that in another thread:

I would think that catching them in one lie is enough to slant the whole discussion to the point that other passages which appear to be prophetic are in doubt.

So if you read, for example, Matthew 1, you see the "virgin birth" prophecy. Most Bibles will have the footnote showing this is referring to Isaiah 7:14. Read that verse in context, going as far back and as far forward as you like; you will see that the passage is about the king of Judah who is grieved because his city is about to be sacked. Isaiah approaches the king and tells him that Judah will not be sacked, and that the king may ask the Lord a sign. The king refuses, likely out of reverence to Deuteronomy 6:16, and then Isaiah says that one will be given anyway: that a "virgin" (or young woman) will give birth to a child named Emmanuel (this is already not Jesus), and before the child is old enough to understand the difference between good and evil Judah's enemies will be destroyed. So how is it that the birth of a baby by a different name 500 years later is confirmation of this prophecy? Pushing this square peg into the round hole constitutes dishonesty.

And then you go on to say this:

I believe you should be more civil to others here. Most have been polite in response to you.

There's an underlying tension in your posts and disregard for basic civility.

Do you not have some subjective set of rules which governs behavior? If so please follow it.

Wgw is quite clearly playing games with me.

1. I say to a third party that the trinity is logically absurd
2. Wgw challenges this
3. I say, "A thing cannot be distinct from itself"
4. He then replies as follows:

What thing? What distinction? What "itself?"

I have a nagging suspicion you are not familiar with the definition of "prosopon."

It is quite clear what I'm talking about, and he goes that route with the conversation.

The Chicago statement is not absurd. I gathered you had a predisposition towards Biblical scholarship, so your answer is not surprising.

OK. Please explain to me if it is a statement of faith or if it is a conclusion based on facts.
 
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Wgw

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1. They are off topic from this thread

I believe they would be of use to you regarding soteriology, the Trinity and other questions you have raised in this topic. I believe it is reasonable to expect one's interlocutor to inform himself regarding the subject matter of a debate.

So his existence, which includes his "free will" and predetermined actions, is nothing but a pointless game.

No. The point is our benefit; it is not pointless if it helps us.

Your invocation of the nonsensical notion of free will does nothing to change the fact that his existence is still a pointless game.

The idea of determinism, which you seem to be endorsing, is rather past its scientific and philosophical prime.

Sir, you said you were not going to play games with me. IF YOU ARE NOW SAYING THAT CHRIST IS REIGNING HERE AND NOW, THEN YOU MUST CONTEND WITH THE FACT THAT HE IS FROM THE CURSED LINEAGE OF JEHOIAKIM. Are you aggravating me deliberately?

Were you unaware of the point of the discussion between redleghunter and myself?

Frankly, at this late hour, I would that I could claim to be engaging in some form of rhetorical legerdemain with you, as it would bolster my formidable reputation as an apologist in these parts, but alas, unfortunately as far as my ego is concerned, I have no idea what you are talking about, old chap.
 
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Nihilist Virus

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I believe they would be of use to you regarding soteriology, the Trinity and other questions you have raised in this topic. I believe it is reasonable to expect one's interlocutor to inform himself regarding the subject matter of a debate.

I have no problem with the Trinity. I explained why. Go back and re-read. I simply told anonymous person that the idea is logically absurd. If you have a summary of its logical defense, present it. If not, I don't care.


No. The point is our benefit; it is not pointless if it helps us.

So now you are saying that Satan is helping us?

This is the last straw. You are now a confirmed troll. I no longer expect fruitful discussion and will continue only for my own amusement.


The idea of determinism, which you seem to be endorsing, is rather past its scientific and philosophical prime.

"Free will" has never made sense. Did you choose your own primitive desires? No. You are "free" to act according to desires which you have no control over.

Frankly, at this late hour, I would that I could claim to be engaging in some form of rhetorical legerdemain with you, as it would bolster my formidable reputation as an apologist in these parts, but alas, unfortunately as far as my ego is concerned, I have no idea what you are talking about, old chap.

And that is because you butted into a conversation without taking the time to read what was publicly posted.
 
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createdtoworship

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OK, so you are clearly not a Baptist.
Off topic as defined in the OP.

actually the op states central doctrine as being off topic. These passage has no doctrine what soever. So it's not applying to central doctrine but all doctrine. In order for this reply to stick you must rewrite the op. I apologize for that.





So do you want to argue that there are hundreds of errors or that there was unusual accuracy? [/QUOTE]

I argued both statements, because hundreds of errors is not alot, and accounts for less than .01% of the total approx.

Or are you arguing that both are the case, and that nearly all reproduced historical documents are filled to the brim with copyist errors?

yes, that is factual. Most copies, have numerous errors. It's a work in progress. The original documents do not exist and are non extant. But to say that a copy has errors and therefore the original does, is not too accurate of an assessment. We would need to original to state that God made an error, so basically your central premise of the op is unobservable and unprovable.

But if the Bible has "unusual" accuracy, what does that prove?
it proves that it is superior a text on basis of accuracy, by definition.

Either God is overseeing the process, in which case it will be PERFECT, or else God is not overseeing the process

as for the question why would God allow a perfect Bible to become corrupt, I would reply that there is no evidence of such corruption. As stated a few times, the slip of pen, or even if it is in direct error, is not a central part of any theology. (and again I am not talking central theology or orthodoxy, I am talking more general)


, in which case it will be AVERAGE WITHIN A FEW STANDARD DEVIATIONS.

as I stated most copies of historic documents contain a large percentage of error, as per my source. So you would have to support this statement with evidence.


If it is not perfect, and yet is better than a few standard deviations above average, how do you conclude God was involved?

I refer to copywrite if the following as equal to what is strict inspiration= (verbal plenary inspiration). So God copywrited all material in the original autograph, as well as its preservation, but in it's preservation He did not copywrite the authorship as strictly. He allowed for copyists to make mistakes, hence they needed to disciplined in scribal traditions similiar to massoretes. But ultimately they would make mistakes, and these would be numerous. But they would not be meaningful because a God has copywrote the Bible as well as it's transmissions, just not as strictly. I could make a translation into an unknown language right now, and say if I use the NIV for example which is not a literal translation, it would have multiple thousands of errors right off the bat. But God would allow this. And say I used a literal translation like NASB, ESV, NKJV, or KJV....then I would have much more accuracy, but again it would not be perfect, and again God would allow this too. So too He allowed people who had possessed a 100% accurate copy, with the ability to make it a 99% accuract copy, and then further...and 97% copy, and now it is at a 95% as far as the latest analysis has found (see my last post), I suspect in 5 thousand years, it may be less. But what is interesting is how these copies were created so accurate, that is what is amazing. The fact that they contain error, is no biggy, that is to be expected, as it is humans, not God doing the jotting down. But the fact that they are so complete, and so accurate, that is unique only to the Bible. again, see Saunders Bibliographical Test (a secular source for grading ancient scrolls).


Also, your argument clearly shows you did not even read the OP:
"Whether these are transcriber errors or errors in the original manuscript is not a question that has any meaning, since it cannot be verified one way or another. In fact, citing the Dead Sea Scrolls as evidence that the scribes put forth a remarkable effort in preserving the texts actually does nothing if not suggest the original manuscripts were in error."
I did not bother to read your sources as they are off topic and also because you clearly did not bother to read what I had to say, nor did you even make a passing attempt at addressing either of the questions I posed (which are the topic of the thread).

It appears you wish to entrap Christians and not allow them to respond to you.

what I if mention a question that is "what is the sum of 2+2"

and then state that mentioning the number 4 is off topic? if your OP was in fact strictly outlawing all theology as off topic, then there essentially could be no response. And you would be guilty of creating impossible delemna, which is fallacy, also you would be guilty of another fallacy, that of dodging.

besides, the OP specifically mentions "central Theology"

and seeing you are not a religious person, that definition is what you are stuck with.

I would have said "any theological implications"

but you didnt.

hence it's not off topic, technically speaking.

but if you are worried, report it.

and let the moderators sort it out.

but I stand firm that your definition of theology is restricted to central theology, or theology which is required in christianity.

we call it essential theology or other creeds, or statements of belief.

but the Bible has alot of stuff that are not related to salvation, or the other veins of theology or pockets. Some of it is under theolgy but it is not general, or central or required theolgy.

it could be historical, in nature, etc.

so again, you would be wrong again here.

in conclusion, your post is guilty of a false dicotomy, AKA false dilemna.
 
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Wgw

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I have no problem with the Trinity. I explained why. Go back and re-read. I simply told anonymous person that the idea is logically absurd. If you have a summary of its logical defense, present it. If not, I don't care.

It can be logically understood once one understands the idea of prosopon and ouisios as they were used by the Nicene Fathers. The ability to grasp the logic of something by the way does not obviously amount to that idea being valid. I have to confess I am at a loss however as to why an avowed Nihilist would believe so strongly in Aristotelian logic.

So now you are saying that Satan is helping us?

This is the last straw. You are now a confirmed troll. I no longer expect fruitful discussion and will continue only for my own amusement.

God helps us by allowing our faith to be tested. I don't see how expressing the doctrine of my faith where that doctrine is the subject matter of the debate could possibly render me a troll.

"Free will" has never made sense. Did you choose your own primitive desires? No. You are "free" to act according to desires which you have no control over.

I am free to the extent I can control the passions, hence fasting and so on.

And that is because you butted into a conversation without taking the time to read what was publicly posted.

I intervened on this discussion to clarify what I perceived as a misunderstanding.
 
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actually the op states central doctrine as being off topic. These passage has no doctrine what soever. So it's not applying to central doctrine but all doctrine. In order for this reply to stick you must rewrite the op. I apologize for that.

WRONG #1. The OP does not say that central doctrine is off topic. It says that it is off topic to claim that a contradiction about an age or etc does not affect central doctrine.

Observe I said this:

The passages that contradict one another are not central doctrine.
God apparently thought it was important enough to record these things twice; also, appealing to "central doctrine" takes us off topic.

READ THE OP.



So do you want to argue that there are hundreds of errors or that there was unusual accuracy?

I argued both statements, because hundreds of errors is not alot, and accounts for less than .01% of the total approx.



yes, that is factual. Most copies, have numerous errors. It's a work in progress. The original documents do not exist and are non extant. But to say that a copy has errors and therefore the original does, is not too accurate of an assessment. We would need to original to state that God made an error, so basically your central premise of the op is unobservable and unprovable.

WRONG #2. The OP does not say that the originals have errors because the copies do. It says we cannot know one way or another whether the originals were infallible.

Observe I said this:

Whether these are transcriber errors or errors in the original manuscript is not a question that has any meaning, since it cannot be verified one way or another.

READ THE OP.


it proves that it is superior a text on basis of accuracy, by definition.

Yes, so the Bible has been preserved better than any book in antiquity. So? The Yankees are by far the best team to ever play professional baseball. Does that mean God is a Yankees fan?

Being great is still a far cry from being divine.



as for the question why would God allow a perfect Bible to become corrupt, I would reply that there is no evidence of such corruption. As stated a few times, the slip of pen, or even if it is in direct error, is not a central part of any theology. (and again I am not talking central theology or orthodoxy, I am talking more general)

OFF TOPIC AS DEFINED IN THE OP.

Observe, ONCE AGAIN, that I said this:

The passages that contradict one another are not central doctrine.
God apparently thought it was important enough to record these things twice; also, appealing to "central doctrine" takes us off topic.

READ THE OP.



as I stated most copies of historic documents contain a large percentage of error, as per my source. So you would have to support this statement with evidence.

Support that claim with evidence? That specific claim? So then what are you saying is that the Bible is remarkably preserved WITHOUT God's supervision? Then you are proving nothing about anything at all.

Look at this back-and-forth in situ:

15c92808aa.png


So you are essentially saying that if I don't support my argument with evidence, then you disregard it, which is to say that you believe God is not involved in the process, which is to say absolutely NOTHING about your case for Christianity.




I refer to copywrite if the following as equal to what is strict inspiration= (verbal plenary inspiration). So God copywrited all material in the original autograph, as well as its preservation, but in it's preservation He did not copywrite the authorship as strictly. He allowed for copyists to make mistakes, hence they needed to disciplined in scribal traditions similiar to massoretes. But ultimately they would make mistakes, and these would be numerous. But they would not be meaningful because a God has copywrote the Bible as well as it's transmissions, just not as strictly. I could make a translation into an unknown language right now, and say if I use the NIV for example which is not a literal translation, it would have multiple thousands of errors right off the bat. But God would allow this. And say I used a literal translation like NASB, ESV, NKJV, or KJV....then I would have much more accuracy, but again it would not be perfect, and again God would allow this too. So too He allowed people who had possessed a 100% accurate copy, with the ability to make it a 99% accuract copy, and then further...and 97% copy, and now it is at a 95% as far as the latest analysis has found (see my last post), I suspect in 5 thousand years, it may be less. But what is interesting is how these copies were created so accurate, that is what is amazing. The fact that they contain error, is no biggy, that is to be expected, as it is humans, not God doing the jotting down. But the fact that they are so complete, and so accurate, that is unique only to the Bible. again, see Saunders Bibliographical Test (a secular source for grading ancient scrolls).




It appears you wish to entrap Christians and not allow them to respond to you.

what I if mention a question that is "what is the sum of 2+2"

and then state that mentioning the number 4 is off topic? if your OP was in fact strictly outlawing all theology as off topic, then there essentially could be no response. And you would be guilty of creating impossible delemna, which is fallacy, also you would be guilty of another fallacy, that of dodging.

besides, the OP specifically mentions "central Theology"

and seeing you are not a religious person, that definition is what you are stuck with.

I would have said "any theological implications"

but you didnt.

hence it's not off topic, technically speaking.

but if you are worried, report it.

and let the moderators sort it out.

but I stand firm that your definition of theology is restricted to central theology, or theology which is required in christianity.

we call it essential theology or other creeds, or statements of belief.

but the Bible has alot of stuff that are not related to salvation, or the other veins of theology or pockets. Some of it is under theolgy but it is not general, or central or required theolgy.

it could be historical, in nature, etc.

so again, you would be wrong again here.

in conclusion, your post is guilty of a false dicotomy, AKA false dilemna.

I did not read any of this, nor will I ever bother to until you READ THE OP. Once you do that, re-read your own posts that I am responding to so you see how patient I am being with you. After that, summarize this huge block of text above and filter out the stuff that is off topic or stated based on the wrong understanding of the OP (I assume it is plentiful with such things). Then I will read it.
 
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Nihilist Virus

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It can be logically understood once one understands the idea of prosopon and ouisios as they were used by the Nicene Fathers. The ability to grasp the logic of something by the way does not obviously amount to that idea being valid. I have to confess I am at a loss however as to why an avowed Nihilist would believe so strongly in Aristotelian logic.

Your confusion is due to the fact that you ignored what I had to say and proceeded to involve yourself in the discussion.

Observe:

As a nihilist I do not even see this as a problem, since logic is entirely man-made and is hence not something that a deity would be subject to. But you, in your own argument, set this as a criteria, so you need to show that the trinity is logically coherent; that is, explain how it is possible for the father, the son, and the holy ghost to all be the same entity despite being distinct entities.

For your reference, this was from page 14, post #272. Post #273 belonged to me, and then you show up in post #274 expressing interest on the topic of the trinity. Your ignorance of my position is fully inexcusable.


God helps us by allowing our faith to be tested.

8e3f2ff7f7.jpg



I don't see how expressing the doctrine of my faith where that doctrine is the subject matter of the debate could possibly render me a troll.

If you truly believe something so utterly bizarre, you need to make sure you don't ignore what others have to say. The combination of both things leaves one with an unmistakable understanding that they are being trolled.

I am free to the extent I can control the passions, hence fasting and so on.

And you are free to sell all that you own, give the money to the poor, wander the world and do good works. Let me know how that goes.



I intervened on this discussion to clarify what I perceived as a misunderstanding.

The misunderstanding has been purely on your end since you did not even bother to read the conversation you were stepping into.
 
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Wgw

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Now that we have clarified your objection to the Trinity, I can reject it on the basis that the three divine prosopa are not separate entities in the sense that human prosopa are separate entities, for they are united both according to essence and energy; there is no discord, no disunity and no disharmony in the divine nature. Thus the prosopa are discrete, but not separate; in their unity they are what humans ought to be, and by iconographically representing them we can hope to attain theosis.

I will readily admit this is not the sort of argument one is likely to hear except from an Orthodox Christian, but the beauty of Orthodoxy is its ability to change the nature of a conversation. This is why to a certain extent I do not even regard the entirety of this thread as directly relevant.

If you truly believe something so utterly bizarre, you need to make sure you don't ignore what others have to say. The combination of both things leaves one with an unmistakable understanding that they are being trolled.

"Bizarre" is an entirely subjective viewpoint that I regard as ultimately rather meaningless in a universe that seems to defy "common sense". I would contend that even attempting to label a theological or philosophical perspective as "bizarre" is essentially an appeal to authority, an appeal to the authority of a perceived consensus on rationality. This does not mean I muself won't do it, but when I do it, I readily admit to engaging in rhetorical frippery.

And you are free to sell all that you own, give the money to the poor, wander the world and do good works. Let me know how that goes.

Many Orthodox and Catholics do this to pursue consecrated life.
 
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redleghunter

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I am aware of the meaning of "beget."

My problem is that the author of Matthew is leaving out something that would be addressed by any honest person.



How is this a failsafe? What on earth are you talking about? How does this fix the fact that Jesus is from a cursed line?




I covered that in another thread:



And then you go on to say this:



Wgw is quite clearly playing games with me.

1. I say to a third party that the trinity is logically absurd
2. Wgw challenges this
3. I say, "A thing cannot be distinct from itself"
4. He then replies as follows:



It is quite clear what I'm talking about, and he goes that route with the conversation.



OK. Please explain to me if it is a statement of faith or if it is a conclusion based on facts.

I'm sure you know Jesus had two royal blood lines. One through the line of Solomon and another through Nathan.
 
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Nihilist Virus

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I'm sure you know Jesus had two royal blood lines. One through the line of Solomon and another through Nathan.

Jesus was not from Joseph's bloodline any more than Moses was from an Egyptian bloodline.

Jesus' father was God and his mother was Mary. Mary's line traces itself through Jehoiakim. Seems pretty open and shut. You continue to just dance around the issue and aren't putting up any kind of a fight whatsoever.
 
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Now that we have clarified your objection to the Trinity, I can reject it on the basis that the three divine prosopa are not separate entities in the sense that human prosopa are separate entities, for they are united both according to essence and energy; there is no discord, no disunity and no disharmony in the divine nature. Thus the prosopa are discrete, but not separate; in their unity they are what humans ought to be, and by iconographically representing them we can hope to attain theosis.

I will readily admit this is not the sort of argument one is likely to hear except from an Orthodox Christian, but the beauty of Orthodoxy is its ability to change the nature of a conversation. This is why to a certain extent I do not even regard the entirety of this thread as directly relevant.



"Bizarre" is an entirely subjective viewpoint that I regard as ultimately rather meaningless in a universe that seems to defy "common sense". I would contend that even attempting to label a theological or philosophical perspective as "bizarre" is essentially an appeal to authority, an appeal to the authority of a perceived consensus on rationality. This does not mean I muself won't do it, but when I do it, I readily admit to engaging in rhetorical frippery.



Many Orthodox and Catholics do this to pursue consecrated life.

Your argument is nonsensical.

"Thus the prosopa are discrete, but not separate"

If you have a good logical argument, put it in a syllogism so I can follow it.

Also, why do you think you need an argument here? Are you saying that God is subject to logic and must be fit according to its standards? If so, can I assume that your beliefs are as well?
 
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Wgw

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Your argument is nonsensical.

"Thus the prosopa are discrete, but not separate"

If you have a good logical argument, put it in a syllogism so I can follow it.

Also, why do you think you need an argument here? Are you saying that God is subject to logic and must be fit according to its standards? If so, can I assume that your beliefs are as well?

Not according to His divine essence; that would be dualism. However, I believe the doctrine of the Trinity to be logical, and regard your critique of it as unsound.
 
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createdtoworship

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WRONG #1. The OP does not say that central doctrine is off topic. It says that it is off topic to claim that a contradiction about an age or etc does not affect central doctrine.

Observe I said this:

The passages that contradict one another are not central doctrine.
God apparently thought it was important enough to record these things twice; also, appealing to "central doctrine" takes us off topic.

ok so did you read what you said?

not context of what was said, but what was actually stated?

READ THE OP.

because the OP states this, and you typed it again to confirm that the following was stated by you, in the OP and quoted again in the following:



also, appealing to "central doctrine" takes us off topic.

so you even throw in an "also" to make the statement separate from the context you are trying to unite it with.

so I see you are wiggling and squigling over this one.

so please attempt to answer this question...

  1. "are you changing the OP as questions arise that you are uncomfortable with?"
    and furthermore...
  2. "does your OP evolve with every new member coming here?"

and do you also threaten them as you have done to me here with the following statement:

...

I did not read any of this, nor will I ever bother to until you READ THE OP. Once you do that, re-read your own posts that I am responding to so you see how patient I am being with you

again, I suggest you read your own OP with the eyes of a scientist, not with your own eyes, it states what I am saying, and not what you are claiming it does.

So your dodging of the rest of my post is arbitrary. Please respond to the things other members are posting in this thread, it's only polite and courteous.

correct these situations first, then we can proceed with the rest of what you are saying.


notice I am not dodging based on false premise (as I proved your posts have done already)
 
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redleghunter

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Jesus was not from Joseph's bloodline any more than Moses was from an Egyptian bloodline.

Jesus' father was God and his mother was Mary. Mary's line traces itself through Jehoiakim. Seems pretty open and shut. You continue to just dance around the issue and aren't putting up any kind of a fight whatsoever.

Have you examined your contentions in the Hebrew/Aramaic?

Jeremiah 36:30

לָכֵ֞ן כֹּֽה־אָמַ֣ר יְהוָ֗ה עַל־יְהֹֽויָקִים֙ מֶ֣לֶךְ יְהוּדָ֔ה לֹא־יִֽהְיֶה־לֹּ֥ו יֹושֵׁ֖ב
עַל־כִּסֵּ֣א דָוִ֑ד וְנִבְלָתֹו֙ תִּֽהְיֶ֣ה מֻשְׁלֶ֔כֶת לַחֹ֥רֶב בַּיֹּ֖ום וְלַקֶּ֥רַח בַּלָּֽיְלָה׃

Now the most literal word for word English translation I have access to is Young's Literal Translation (YLT):

'Therefore, thus said Jehovah, concerning Jehoiakim king of Judah: He hath none sitting on the throne of David, and his carcase is cast out to heat by day, and to cold by night;

'He shall have none': Strongs H3427 in the following manner: dwell (437x), inhabitant (221x), sit (172x), abide (70x), inhabit (39x), down (26x), remain (23x), in (22x), tarry (19x), set (14x), continue (5x), place (7x), still (5x), taken (5x), misc (23x).

to dwell, remain, sit, abide
(Qal)
  1. to sit, sit down

  2. to be set

  3. to remain, stay

  4. to dwell, have one's abode

yâshab, yaw-shab'; a primitive root; properly, to sit down (specifically as judge. in ambush, in quiet); by implication, to dwell, to remain; causatively, to settle, to marry:—(make to) abide(-ing), continue, (cause to, make to) dwell(-ing), ease self, endure, establish, × fail, habitation, haunt, (make to) inhabit(-ant), make to keep (house), lurking, × marry(-ing), (bring again to) place, remain, return, seat, set(-tle), (down-) sit(-down, still, -ting down, -ting (place) -uate), take, tarry.

The above fulfilled. Jehoiachin did not 'inhabit' 'make to keep' 'endure' 'dwell' the throne as he was removed by Nebuchadnezzar.


What is missing from the passage which would cause us to see this as an 'eternal' or 'beyond the horizon' type of curse?

The word 'owlam' is not evident in the curse of Jehoiakim.

owlam: Strongs H5769 in the following manner: ever (272x), everlasting (63x), old (22x), perpetual (22x), evermore (15x), never (13x), time (6x), ancient (5x), world (4x), always (3x), alway (2x), long (2x), more (2x), never (with H408) (2x), misc (6x)

ʻôwlâm, o-lawm'; or עֹלָם ʻôlâm; from H5956; properly, concealed, i.e. the vanishing point; generally, time out of mind (past or future), i.e. (practically) eternity; frequentatively, adverbial (especially with prepositional prefix) always:—alway(-s), ancient (time), any more, continuance, eternal, (for, (n-)) ever(-lasting, -more, of old), lasting, long (time), (of) old (time), perpetual, at any time, (beginning of the) world (+ without end).


Therefore, the curse of Jehoiakim is immaterial to the lineage of Jesus.

The maternal lineage does not directly link back Jehoiakim as we see in Luke 3:23-38.

Remember the line of Joseph, which is important was a legal claim to the line of David but not a blood claim. The only 'blood line' which would be human comes from blessed mother of Jesus Mary.


blood line 2.png
 
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ChetSinger

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Jesus was not from Joseph's bloodline any more than Moses was from an Egyptian bloodline.

Jesus' father was God and his mother was Mary. Mary's line traces itself through Jehoiakim. Seems pretty open and shut. You continue to just dance around the issue and aren't putting up any kind of a fight whatsoever.
Somebody should start a thread about the genealogies in Matthew and Luke. Fascinating subject, involving ancient Jewish inheritance customs.

...What is missing from the passage which would cause us to see this as an 'eternal' or 'beyond the horizon' type of curse?

...

Therefore, the curse of Jehoiakim is immaterial to the lineage of Jesus.
Fyi, there's also Rabbinic tradition that says the curse was withdrawn, as evidenced by God's blessing upon Zerubbabel in Haggai 2:

"for no man of his seed shall prosper -In this, too, no man of his seed shall prosper, namely that no one will occupy the throne of David nor rule in Judah. Although we find that Zerubbabel, his great grandson, did rule over Judah upon the return of the exiles, the Rabbis (Pesikta /'Rav Kahana p. 163a) state that this : 'was because Jehoiachin repented in prison. They state further: Repentance is great, for it nullifies a person's sentence, as it is stated: inscribe this man childless.' But since he repented, his sentence was revoked and turned to the good, and he said to him, "I will take you, Zerubbabel, and I will make you a signet" (Haggai 2:23). They state further: Said Rabbi Johanan: Exile expiates all sins, as it is said: Inscribe this man childless," and after he was exiled, it IS written: '(I Chron. 3:17) And the sons of Jeconiah, Assir, Shealtiel his son--Redak" [Judaica Books of the Prophets, in loc]

Source: http://christianthinktank.com/fabprof4.html
 
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Hawkins

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Somebody should start a thread about the genealogies in Matthew and Luke. Fascinating subject, involving ancient Jewish inheritance customs.

Paul actually warned about the discussion of genealogies. It is just two human accounts of witnessing chosen by God to show that Jesus is legitimately the descendant of David and Adam (whether you accept the virgin birth or not). I already pointed out earlier that this can be about how God's court works in terms of human witnessing (I am trying to point it out again here before a complete illogical person putting his assertion of "Off topic"). That only needs to be accurate to the point that it shows as a human account of witnessing that Jesus is from David/Adam. How humans culturally keep records, and their incapability to keep a clearer record due to human limitations won't affect the legitimacy of the witnessing in God's court.

That said, show a human genealogy which is believed to be strictly accurate for more than 5000 years.

1) History is history, we can hardly verify how accurate it can be
2) before the invention of paper, we don't even have the clue of how the different group of ancient humans keep their genealogy
 
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ChetSinger

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Paul actually warned about the discussion of genealogies. It is just two human accounts of witnessing chosen by God to show that Jesus is legitimately the descendant of David and Adam (whether you accept the virgin birth or not). I already pointed out earlier that this can be about how God's court works in terms of human witnessing (I am trying to point it out again here before a complete illogical person putting his assertion of "Off topic"). That only needs to be accurate to the point that it shows as a human account of witnessing that Jesus is from David/Adam. How humans culturally keep records, and their incapability to keep a clearer record due to human limitations won't affect the legitimacy of the witnessing in God's court.

That said, show a human genealogy which is believed to be strictly accurate for more than 5000 years.

1) History is history, we can hardly verify how accurate it can be
2) before the invention of paper, we don't even have the clue of how the different group of ancient humans keep their genealogy
I acknowledge Paul said that, but I think the genealogies of Christ are an exception. They've been used by skeptics to challenge the faith so I think defending them is a legitimate branch of apologetics. And from what I've read they can be defended. But I don't want to derail this thread with it.
 
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