Questions for Bible2

ThomasGuthler

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Even though the people of ancient Israel failed to locate the ark after they returned to the land after their Babylonian captivity (Ezra 2:1), they nonetheless were greatly blessed while still under the Old Covenant, and even built a second temple in Jerusalem (Ezra 6:14-22) which God the Father came to dwell in (Matthew 23:21, John 2:16).

Even though without the ark and its mercy seat the Israelites after their Babylonian captivity couldn't do all that Moses had commanded them (Leviticus 16:14-15), God didn't hold that against them because their not doing all was beyond their control; they couldn't find the ark.

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Ezra 6:22 actually refers to the king of Persia (Ezra 6:14-15), who was the king of Assyria in the sense that he ruled over the former territory of the Assyrian empire.

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Ezekiel 14:22-23 means that the Jewish survivors of Babylon's attack on Jerusalem would go to Babylon (where Ezekiel was when he received the prophecy of Ezekiel 14:21) where Ezekiel would see them and be comforted.

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Ezekiel 22:19-20 was fulfilled during the siege and destruction of Jerusalem in 586 B.C.

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Ezekiel 23:5-10 refers to how the northern kingdom of Israel admired and sought alliance with the Assyrians and their empire before it destroyed the northern kingdom of Israel [before it took Israel into captivity].

Ezekiel 23:11-13 refers to how, even after the destruction of the northern kingdom of Israel, Jerusalem admired and sought alliance with the Assyrians and their empire.

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Ezekiel 28:24 could refer to a final attack on the Jews in Jerusalem at the very end of the coming tribulation, right before the second coming (Zechariah 14:2-5).

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Ezekiel 30 refers to the time of the defeat of ancient Egypt by Nebuchadnezzar king of Babylon (cf. Jeremiah 46). Ezekiel 30:3 is the same ancient "day of the LORD" as Jeremiah 46:10.

The Hebrew word translated as "time" in Ezekiel 30:3 is translated as "time" and "times" in Daniel 11:6,14,24,35a,40, 12:1,4,9,11, in reference to various different times.

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Ezekiel 31:3-16 shows that the Assyrian empire had already been destroyed by the time of Ezekiel, who prophesied during the time of the subsequent Babylonian empire.

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Ezekiel 36:24, 37:21 refers to a future gathering of the descendants of those in the northern kingdom of Israel who had gone into the Assyrian captivity (Ezekiel 36:17-23). They will be brought into the land of Israel given to the Patriarchs and their physical descendants to inherit forever (Ezekiel 36:28, Exodus 32:13). They will then be joined into one kingdom with the descendants of those in the southern kingdom of Judah (Ezekiel 37:22), just as all twelve tribes were one kingdom under David. This will occur at Jesus' second coming when he will sit upon the throne of David (Luke 1:32, Isaiah 9:7) and restore the kingdom to Israel (Acts 1:6-7, 3:20-21). This kingdom will include all twelve tribes of Israel, which will have the twelve apostles placed over them as their governors (Matthew 19:28, Luke 22:30).

The future, millennial re-establishment of the kingdom of Israel containing all twelve tribes (Ezekiel 37:19-22), like during the reign of King David (2 Samuel 5:1-5), is a reference to the church inhabiting that kingdom, for the church consists of all twelve tribes of Israel (Revelation 21:9b,12b), not only of Jews in the church, who remain part of the tribes of Israel in which they were born (Romans 11:1, Acts 4:36), but also of Gentiles in the church, who have been grafted into Israel (Romans 11:17,24, Ephesians 2:12,19, Galatians 3:29), and so have been grafted into its various tribes (cf. Ezekiel 47:21-23), which is necessary because the New Covenant by which the church is saved (Matthew 26:28, 1 Corinthians 11:25, 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15) is made only with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31-34), and which means that the 144,000 male-virgin Christians (Revelation 14:4) from the twelve tribes of Israel (Revelation 7:4) aren't just genetic Jews in the church, but genetic Gentiles in the church as well.

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Ezekiel 36:25-27 is [...] the gospel going forth to save those who are genetically Jews, and who are elect, at the time of Jesus' second coming (Zechariah 12:10-14, Romans 11:25-32) …

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Just as the literal nation of Israel remains one (Ezekiel 37:19), and doesn't become "the Israels", even though it contains twelve tribes, so the church remains one (Ephesians 4:4) even though it's the same as the twelve tribes of the literal nation of Israel (Revelation 21:9b,12b).

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Ezekiel 37:21-23 refers to those unbelieving elect Israelites still alive at the second coming who will all be saved when they see Jesus (Romans 11:26-29, Zechariah 12:10-14).

The joining of the two kingdoms (Ezekiel 37:22) [...] refers to the church, which consists of all twelve tribes of Israel joined into one entity (Revelation 21:9b,12b) [like during the reign of King David (2 Samuel 5:1-5)], not only currently in a spiritual manner (Hebrews 12:22-24), but also in the future in a physical manner on the earth during the millennial kingdom (Matthew 19:28, Luke 22:30).

Ezekiel 37:24 means that the resurrected David will also be a local king over Israel during the millennium.
 
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ThomasGuthler said in post 60:

In the attachment-section of the books I've saved a lot of longer texts like this two examples:

Bible Codes . . .

Thanks for saving the *Bible Codes post from archive oblivion. I hope to add it as a new, last section under *Rev. 13:18. I will skip the Communion post and go with the boiled-down *Jn. 6:53 and *1 Cor. 11:29.

ThomasGuthler said in post 60:

Don't know if this is in some way useful for you.

Yes, it is very useful to be pointed to old posts which could be brought into the blog. I appreciate you doing so.

You said you had "a lot" of longer texts like the 2 examples you gave. I would like to see all of them, eventually, gradually. So can you include all of them in your list of entries which are still to be posted in this thread? That is, can you consider the longer texts (links) the same as the other entries you have been posting, so that you would still post a total of 3 entries per day, but the first would be one of the long-text links, and the other 2 would be the topic-assembled quotes like you have been posting?

ThomasGuthler said in post 60:

Some more entries:

Thanks for these.

I will skip the Mount Hermon entry (for now, anyway), for it is countering a view which is too rare to bother with.

Regarding the ark entry, I will skip it because I'm not sure whether it's true or not that there was no ark in the 2nd temple.

Regarding the Ezekiel entry, many of its paragraphs are covered by *Ezek. 11:25, *Ezek. 12:10, *Ezek. 14:21, *Ezek. 36, *tribes, *Ezek. 37:19, and *Ezek. 37:22. And the ones that aren't didn't grab me (at this time, anyway).

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Thank you for letting me review all of these entries.

Can you post 3 more that aren't in the blog?
 
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ThomasGuthler

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You said you had "a lot" of longer texts like the 2 examples you gave. I would like to see all of them, eventually, gradually. So can you include all of them in your list of entries which are still to be posted in this thread? That is, can you consider the longer texts (links) the same as the other entries you have been posting, so that you would still post a total of 3 entries per day, but the first would be one of the long-text links, and the other 2 would be the topic-assembled quotes like you have been posting?

These longer texts are often a compilation of several similar posts, most of them are also not relevant enough to be posted here. We could continue with 3 posts per day for some time.

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Some more entries:

The fruit of the Spirit (Galatians 5:22, Ephesians 5:9) is not humanistic virtue, but divine virtue (2 Peter 1:4) from the Holy Spirit of God (Romans 8:9).

http://www.christianforums.com/thre...lusive-to-christianity.7386409/#post-52417037 see also # 15 and page 2.

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Habakkuk could be referring to the ancient Chaldeans (Habakkuk 1:6) in the days of Habakkuk (Habakkuk 1:5). The Hebrew word translated as "end" in Habakkuk 2:3 can be translated simply as "after" (Daniel 11:13).

Habakkuk 1:5-6 could have been fulfilled by the ancient Chaldeans who conquered ancient Jerusalem in 586 BC. In that case, "at the end" (Habakkuk 2:3) could mean at the end of the ancient period of time between the time that the vision was given and the "appointed time" (Habakkuk 2:3) when it was fulfilled: compare Jeremiah 52:8 & Habakkuk 1:8; compare Jeremiah 52:14-15 & Habakkuk 1:9; compare Jeremiah 52:10-11 & Habakkuk 1:10a; and compare Jeremiah 52:5,7a & Habakkuk 1:10b.

In Acts 13:40-41, Paul wasn't saying that the Chaldeans were going to come (Habakkuk 1:5-6) upon the unbelieving Jews in Antioch in Pisidia (Acts 13:14) in the first century; he was warning them, using the principle of Habakkuk 1:5 alone as a type, not to disbelieve God the Father's work through Jesus Christ (Acts 13:38-39).

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In Leviticus 23, Christ's death was the fulfillment of the Passover (Leviticus 23:5; 1 Corinthians 5:7b), and His resurrection could be a fulfillment of the firstfruits of Leviticus 23:10 (1 Corinthians 15:20). The salvation of the Church could be a subsequent fulfillment of the firstfruits of Leviticus 23:10 (James 1:18). And the 144,000 part of the Church could be a subsequent fulfillment of the firstfruits presented to the Lord (Leviticus 23:10b-11, Revelation 14:4b).

The fifty days and firstfruits and two loaves of Leviticus 23:16-17 could have been fulfilled at Pentecost and subsequently, when the firstfruits of the Spirit (Romans 8:23) were poured out on (one loaf) the Jews in the Church (Acts 2:14-18) and then on (another loaf) the Gentiles in the Church (Acts 10:45b).

The feast of trumpets of Leviticus 23:24 could be fulfilled at the second coming, when the trumpet will sound (Matthew 24:30-31; 1 Thessalonians 4:16-17; 1 Corinthians 15:52).

The day of atonement of Leviticus 23:27-28 could be fulfilled when Christ saves all of the elect unbelieving Jews alive at the second coming (Romans 11:26-28, Zechariah 12:10-14).

The feast of tabernacles of Leviticus 23:34 could be fulfilled at the marriage feast (Revelation 19:9) which will be on the earth after the second coming (Isaiah 25:6-9). Paul quotes from Isaiah 25:8 in 1 Corinthians 15:54b, showing that the earthly feast of Isaiah 25:6-9 will be connected with the resurrection of the Church at the second coming (Revelation 20:4-6).
 
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ThomasGuthler said in post 63:

These longer texts are often a compilation of several similar posts, most of them are also not relevant enough to be posted here.

What do you mean by not relevant enough; can you give some examples?

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ThomasGuthler said in post 63:

Some more entries . . .

Thanks for these.

Regarding the 1st entry, I hope to add parts of the linked posts as 2 new sections (*Fruit of the Spirit, and *Humanism) under *Gal. 5:22. I will skip the 2nd entry (for now, anyway), as it didn't grab me. I hope to add the 3rd entry as a new 2nd section (*feasts) under *1 Cor. 15:52.

--

Thanks for helping me to make these additions to the blog.

Can you post 3 more entries that aren't in the blog?
 
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ThomasGuthler

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What do you mean by not relevant enough; can you give some examples?

Not relevant enough means they add no new information, but say basically the same as already in the blog. An example would be this entry, I´ve added it into the book only because of the scripture quotations.

http://www.christianforums.com/threads/took-and-taken.7419560/#post-53566599

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Some more entries:


"Supersessionism" and "Replacement Theology" are not valid descriptions of Covenant Theology ...

http://www.christianforums.com/threads/israel-and-the-church.7334675/#post-51727589
see also the rest of the thread

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Nehemiah 9:32 refers to the trouble which had come upon Israel since the time of the kings of the Assyrian empire.

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Psalms 68:24-29 shows Christ walking among humans in the millennium (cf. Zephaniah 3:17).

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While Isaiah 20:1 refers to 711 B.C., when the king of Assyria was Sargon II, Isaiah 20:4-6 could refer to 671 B.C., when the king of Assyria was Esarhaddon (who succeeded Sennacherib, and who conquered part of Egypt in 671 B.C).

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Isaiah 23:13 (KJV) could mean that the Assyrians helped to originally develop the land of the Chaldeans (Babylonians).

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If Isaiah 27:1 is referring to the slaying of Satan, then it won't be fulfilled until after the millennium (Revelation 20:7-10), just as Psalm 75:3 won't be fulfilled until after the millennium (Revelation 20:11, cf. 21:1).

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Isaiah 28:5 could refer to Jesus during his millennial reign on the earth (Zechariah 14:9).

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Isaiah 36 refers to Sennacherib.

Isaiah 36:1 need not have been only a similitude of some future fulfillment of Isaiah 10:5-6, but could have been its actual fulfillment.

God did not defend Judah during Sennacherib's invasion (Isaiah 36:1), for by the time of Sennacherib's invasion, Judah could have fallen into hypocrisy (Isaiah 10:5-6).

Isaiah 36:19-20 is so strikingly similar to Isaiah 10:9-11 that it's clearly the fulfillment of Isaiah 10:9-11.

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Isaiah 37:31-32 [...] was referring to the remnant of Israel that survived Sennacherib's invasion.

Isaiah 37:32 could be the fulfillment of Isaiah 10:20 because the time referred to in Isaiah 10:20 is the time of Isaiah 10:16-19, which could refer to Isaiah 37:36.

All Isaiah 10:20-21 requires is that the Israelites no longer looked to Assyria, but returned to the Lord, just as they had returned to the Lord fourteen years earlier, at the start of Hezekiah's reign (2 Chronicles 29:3-30:12).

Isaiah 37:36 could have fulfilled Isaiah 10:33-34 because Isaiah 10:33-34 doesn't have to be literally about Lebanon but could refer figuratively to the princes of the Assyrian (Isaiah 10:8) being as lofty as Lebanon, just as "Lebanon" is used figuratively in Ezekiel 31:3, 17:3, Jeremiah 22:6,23, and Judges 9:15.

… the miraculous defeat of Sennacherib by God himself in Isaiah 37:36-37 was clearly the fulfillment of the miraculous defeat prophesied in Isaiah 10:16-19.

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Isaiah 52:4 could refer to the past oppressions of the Israelites by kings of Assyria, such as Tiglath-Pileser III in 734-732 B.C. (1 Chronicles 5:26, 2 Kings 15:29), and Shalmaneser V and Sargon II in 724-722 B.C. (2 Kings 17:3-6).

Isaiah 52:4 could refer to all of the oppression of Israel and Judah by the various kings of Assyria. It could also include future oppressions of Israel by leaders from the former territory of the Assyrian empire, such as a Baathist Iraqi General who could defeat Israel (Daniel 11:15-17), before the Antichrist arises (Daniel 11:21-45), possibly out of Tyre, Lebanon (Ezekiel 28:2, cf. 2 Thessalonians 2:4).

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Isaiah 66:5-16 could refer to the second coming when Jesus will rescue Jerusalem from an attack and restore Jerusalem and rule the world from there during the millennium (Zechariah 14:2-21, Isaiah 2:1-5).

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Jeremiah 2:18 refers to how Israel was going after the ways of the Assyrian empire.

Jeremiah 2:18 could refer to the Israelites in the time of Jeremiah seeking political alliances with Assyria or Egypt instead of trusting in God to protect them from both.

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Israel in the time of Jeremiah failed to fulfill Jeremiah 17:20-26, and so did not receive its blessings.
Instead, they fulfilled Jeremiah 17:27, and that was why the judgment of God came upon them.

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Jeremiah 50:17a could refer to how the northern kingdom of Israel was conquered by Sargon II, king of Assyria (2 Kings 17:6), and how Judah was subsequently conquered by Sennacherib, king of Assyria (Isaiah 36:1).

Jeremiah 50:17 could refer to the same as Isaiah 52:4 (above).

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The glorious heavenly, or "celestial", bodies referred to in 1 Corinthians 15:40 are objects like the literal sun, moon, and stars in 1 Corinthians 15:41, which are gloriously bright physical objects which reside in the second "heaven" of outer space (Deuteronomy 4:19, cf. Daniel 12:3, 1 Corinthians 15:49b).
 
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ThomasGuthler said in post 65:

Not relevant enough means they add no new information . . .

Okay, thanks.

I can see why you kept the example you provided, for it is very different in style and organization than *Left, even though they ultimately contain the same information (when the references in *Left are looked up).

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ThomasGuthler said in post 65:

Some more entries . . .

Thank you for these.

Regarding the 1st entry, it seems mostly covered by *church age, *Replacement, *tribes, *Rom. 11:25, *Nonelect Israelites, *land/Rom., *seed, *rod, *woman, *election, *Rom. 11:28, *Lost tribes, *Rom. 11:26, and *Sand.

But I can see why you kept the thread, as it's a very meaty one.

Also, I hope to add paragraph 1 of that thread's post #30 as a new, 2nd section under *Mt. 15:24.

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Regarding the 2nd entry, some it seems covered by the *Isa. 10 entries, and the rest didn't grab me (I think because they were countering a view which is too rare to bother with, which view is sufficiently handled under the *Isa. 10 entries).

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Regarding the 3rd entry, good catch (it's small, but important). I hope to add it as a new entry (*Celestial bodies) under *1 Cor. 15:40.

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Thank you for helping me to make these additions to the blog.

Can you post 3 more entries which aren't in the blog?
 
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ThomasGuthler

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Some more entries, maybe you could expand the last entry to all 10 commandments?




Millennium and the environment

http://www.christianforums.com/threads/millenium-and-the-environment.7296456/#post-49082862

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Hosea 1:10 refers to the unity which occurred spiritually in the first century (Romans 9:8-26), for Romans 9:26 is a direct quote from Hosea 1:10, showing that it was fulfilled in the first century, some 2,000 years before the future millennial return to the land and the restoration of the earthly kingdom of Israel by the returned Jesus (Acts 1:6-7, 3:20-21, Luke 1:32, Isaiah 9:7) in Hosea 1:11, when the unity will become earthly-political.

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Hosea chapters 7-11 prophesied the destruction of the northern kingdom of Israel, which happened in 722 B.C.

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The book of Jonah doesn't refer to "the Assyrian", but it does show that God was interested in the repentance of the Assyrian people in Nineveh (Jonah 3:4-4:11), the capital of the ancient Assyrian empire.

But the book of Zephaniah shows that Nineveh ultimately returned to unrepentant wickedness and so was destroyed by God (Zephaniah 2:13).

But the book of Ezekiel shows God's ultimate destruction of the Assyrian empire because of its subsequent fall back into unrepentant wickedness (Ezekiel 31:3-14).

Regarding Jonah being cut off from God, the Bible doesn't say that he was or that he wasn't; it doesn't say what happened to Jonah after the point where the book of Jonah ends. But Jonah probably repented from his pique (Jonah 4:1,4), if he bothered to write down what happened to him. And God forgives us when we repent (1 John 1:9, 2 Corinthians 7:10, Luke 13:3).

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Micah prophesied in the time of Hezekiah (Micah 1:1). So Micah 3:12 could have been a prophecy of the subsequent destruction of Jerusalem by Babylon in 586 B.C.

Micah 7:12 could refer to people from all over, including Assyria, coming to worship in a rebuilt Jerusalem (Micah 7:11, 4:1-2).

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Nahum 1:9 could mean that God would make an utter end of ancient Nineveh, and wouldn't have to afflict it more than once.

Nahum 1:12-13 could mean that God would not afflict Israel with Nineveh any more. Mosul is located across the river from the site of ancient Nineveh.

Nahum 1:11-14 referred to the fall of ancient Nineveh.

Nahum 1:11-13, 2:2,6-13, and chapter 3 could refer to a ruler of Nineveh who defeated ancient Israel before he and Nineveh were defeated by God.

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Zechariah 3:1-8a refers to Joshua the son of Josedech, the high priest in the time of Zechariah (Zechariah 6:11) and Haggai (Haggai 1:1,12,14, 2:2), after the kingdom of Judah had returned from its Babylonian Captivity.

Zechariah 3:1-8a is a symbolic vision whereby Joshua the son of Josedech is cleansed from his sins by God so that he might serve as high priest in the time of Zechariah.

Joshua the son of Josedech's sins are symbolized by a dirty garment, and the righteousness God gives him is symbolized by a clean garment (Zechariah 3:4-5).

The same imagery is used with reference to the church in Revelation 19:8, where the clean garment of the bride represents the righteousness (Revelation 19:8b) which those in the church have now through their faith in Jesus (Romans 3:22).

Joshua the son of Josedech, as high priest, was a type of Jesus of Nazareth, the high priest (Hebrews 6:20) of the New Covenant (Hebrews 9:15).

Jesus of Nazareth is the prophesied "Branch" of Zechariah 3:8b. The "Branch" is the Messiah (Jeremiah 23:5-6, 33:15-17, Isaiah 11).

Zechariah 3:9 is also a prophecy of Jesus of Nazareth, for he is the symbolic stone (1 Peter 2:4,6-7, Isaiah 28:16, Acts 4:11, Psalms 118:22) who symbolically has seven eyes (Revelation 5:6, cf. Zechariah 4:10).

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Zechariah 5:1-4 refers to a curse which could have gone forth from God back in the time of the prophet Zechariah in the 6th century BC.

… the curse in Zechariah 5:3 is looking for all those people on the earth who steal or swear.

Zechariah 5:5-10 symbolizes the world's wickedness (Zechariah 5:6b,8a, compare 1 John 5:19).

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The flying roll (Zechariah 5:1) could be different than the book sealed with seven seals (Revelation 5:1), which is never shown as flying.

The flying roll is huge (Zechariah 5:2), twenty cubits by ten cubits (30 feet long and 15 feet wide), whereas the book sealed with seven seals can be held in a hand (Revelation 5:1).

The flying roll could have gone forth back in the time of Zechariah (Zechariah 5:3), who lived in the sixth century BC, whereas the book sealed with seven seals was still unsealed in the first century AD, for its unsealing is part of the "things which must be hereafter" (Revelation 4:1) in relation to the time when John the apostle saw Revelation in the first century. Irenaeus says that John saw Revelation toward the end of Domitian's reign (Against Heresies 5:30:3c), which reign ended in 96 AD.

Zechariah 5:3-4 could mean that the flying roll is just one specific curse against everyone who steals and everyone who takes an oath falsely in God's name (one side of the flying roll being against all thieves, the other side being against all those who take an oath falsely in God's name), which curse could result in them all being cut off and all of their houses being destroyed (Zechariah 5:3-4), whereas the description of the unsealing of the book sealed with seven seals makes no specific reference to any "curse", nor to any thieves or people taking oaths falsely in God's name. Also, the book sealed with seven seals contains some blessings, such as literal white robes given to the souls of the dead martyrs in heaven (Revelation 6:9-11). And what happens after the first seal is unsealed (Revelation 6:1-2) could represent the blessing of the gospel of Christ reaching all the nations (Matthew 24:14).

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Zechariah 6:1-8 could have occurred back in the time of Zechariah, just as Zechariah 6:10-11 occurred back in the time of Zechariah.

... the mountains of brass in Zechariah 6:1 could be in heaven, for the four chariots which go forth from them are "the four spirits of the heavens" (Zechariah 6:5).

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... Zechariah 13:8 isn't referring to two-thirds of Israel being cut off in the future for not obeying the Old Covenant Mosaic law.

And there are a lot of Christian Jews and Gentiles living in the land of Israel today, so the two-thirds of those living in the land of Israel who will be cut off and die during the coming tribulation of Revelation chapters 6-18 could include Christians. God can cut off both the righteous and the wicked (Ezekiel 21:2-7). But for the Christians who will be cut off, their death won't be a bad thing for them, but gain (Philippians 1:21,23), a blessing (Revelation 14:12-13), for it will allow them to escape all the subsequent horrors of the rest of the tribulation (Isaiah 57:1), and it will bring their souls into the presence of Jesus in heaven (2 Corinthians 5:8).

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The book of Malachi was addressed to the Jews in the time of Malachi in the 5th century B.C., after the second temple had been built.

Malachi 1:11 prophesied the situation since the New Covenant salvation of the Gentiles (Acts 10:45), who offer up to God figurative incense and sacrifice continually all around the world (Psalms 141:2, Hebrews 13:15), not just in Jerusalem and Israel (John 4:21-24).

The prophecy of Malachi 3:1a was fulfilled later by John the Baptist (Matthew 11:10). Malachi 4:5-6 was also fulfilled by John the Baptist (Luke 1:17, Matthew 11:14), figuratively. Malachi 4:5 may also be fulfilled literally by Elijah himself (Matthew 17:11), who ascended alive into heaven (2 Kings 2:11) and so could come back down from heaven to be one of the two witnesses during the coming tribulation (Revelation 11:3).

The prophecy of Malachi 3:1b was fulfilled by Jesus at his first coming, during which he went to the temple (John 2:13-16), and then later instituted the New Covenant (Matthew 26:28, Hebrews 9:16).

Malachi 3:2-3, 4:1 prophesies of Jesus' second coming with fire (2 Thessalonians 1:7-10) and his purging (Isaiah 4:4) and saving of the elect Jews still alive at that time (Zechariah 12:10-14, Romans 11:26-29). Malachi 3:4 refers to the millennial offerings which will be made at a New Covenant temple which Jesus will build in Jerusalem (Zechariah 14:20-21, 6:12-13).

While some parts of the book of Malachi relate to old testament times (e.g. Malachi 4:4, 3:8), many other parts relate to new testament times, for Malachi 3:1a was fulfilled by John the Baptist (Matthew 11:10); and Malachi 4:5-6 had a fulfillment by John the Baptist (Luke 1:17, Matthew 11:14). Also, Malachi 3:1b was fulfilled by Jesus in John 2:13-16 and Matthew 26:28; and Malachi 3:2-4 will be fulfilled by Jesus at his second coming (Isaiah 4:4, Zechariah 14:20-21), just as Malachi 4:1 will also be fulfilled at the second coming (2 Thessalonians 1:7-9). And Malachi 1:11 relates to John 4:21-24.

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The New Covenant repeats the ideas of the first and second of the ten commandments of the Old Covenant in such verses as 1 Corinthians 8:4, Mark 12:29-30, and 1 John 5:21. The idea of the third of the ten commandments of the Old Covenant is amplified in the New Covenant to include our actions and not just our words (Titus 1:16), that is, we can profess the name of the Lord, but we do so in vain if we do not obey him and the Father (Matthew 7:21, Hebrews 5:9, Luke 6:46).
 
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Thanks for saving these.

I hope to add part of the 1st entry as a new entry under *Mic. 4:4, and add an expanded version of the 3rd entry as a new (12th) section under *Eph. 2:15.

--

Thanks for helping me to make these additions to the blog.

Can you post 3 more entries that aren't in the blog?
 
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ThomasGuthler

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Thank you for adding the *Eph. 2:15 article, some more entries:



Hard truths regarding Israel

http://www.christianforums.com/threads/john-hagee-and-anti-semitism.7293759/#post-48983290
(see also the rest of the thread)

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Isaiah 18 could refer to that part of Africa beyond the rivers of Ethiopia from the viewpoint of the land of Israel. The imagery of Isaiah 18:1-2a could refer to what sub-Saharan Africa was like in the time of Isaiah, for the Hebrew for "the land shadowing with wings" would permit the translation "the land of spears with feathers". Some sub-Saharan African tribes could have made strings with some feathers on the end, and then tied these strings near the tops of their spears, perhaps to talismanically "help them fly" farther when thrown. The "vessels of bulrushes" in Isaiah 18:2 could refer to literal, small boats which could have been made out of bulrushes by some sub-Saharan African tribes.

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Jesus did walk away from persecutions (Luke 4:30, John 10:39), just as Paul left places of persecution (Acts 17:10,14), but not from cowardice, just as the fleeing from persecution commanded of believers in Matthew 10:23 should never be done out of cowardice.

But, at the same time, believers should never become prideful and think that they're stronger than they really are. Jesus could command the fleeing of persecution in Matthew 10:23 because no believer really knows how he or she will stand up to it if he or she sticks around long enough for it to get really nasty.

For example, a believer could be all cocky and say "I'm not going to flee this persecution, even though I now have the chance to; I don't care what Matthew 10:23 says! I'm going to stay put and be strong and do exploits!" But then that believer could be captured and tortured, and his or her proud "strength" could melt away in an instant, so that he or she commits apostasy in order to be released from the torture.

God never places believers into any situation which they can't handle by his grace (1 Corinthians 10:13). But that doesn't mean that they can willfully and proudly cast themselves down from the pinnacle of the temple, as it were, and expect God to send his angels to miraculously save them before they go "splat". Believers must never test God in such a way (Matthew 4:5-7).

If believers willfully and proudly disobey Jesus' command in Matthew 10:23 and refuse to flee a persecution when they have the chance to, they could very well find themselves in a situation which they can't handle, and in which God won't necessarily work a miracle to save them.

Better to be humble and flee a persecution when one has the chance to, than to be proud and fall into apostasy when it really gets nasty. God resists the proud, but gives grace to the humble (James 4:6). Pride goes before destruction, and a haughty spirit before a fall (Proverbs 16:18).

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While God is able to keep Christians safe if he wants to, he still commands Christians to flee persecution, never out of cowardice or any fear of death (Hebrews 2:15), but so that they can preach somewhere else that needs to hear the gospel (Matthew 10:23, Luke 4:29-31). That's why Paul didn't hang around a city when persecution arose against him (Acts 17:4-34), for what use was there of him getting killed right away before he'd had the chance to preach the gospel to many other cities?

1 Timothy 6:12 isn't talking about Christians sticking around and fighting their persecutors, but fighting against the evil spiritual forces which animate their persecutors (Ephesians 6:12, 2 Timothy 2:24-26).

Christians can still wage spiritual warfare (2 Corinthians 10:3-5) even as they flee persecution. For example, they can still pray every day for the salvation of the people who were persecuting them, that their persecutors would be delivered from the evil spiritual forces and thoughts controlling their minds.

Noah wouldn't have walked away from any persecution he may have suffered while building the ark, because he had to stay and build the ark if he and his family were to survive the approaching flood.

Stephen could have tried to calmly walk away from his stoning (Acts 7:59), but the enraged mob could have surrounded him on all sides and pushed him back, into the center, until he fell down from the blows of the stones. Jesus calmly walked away from an enraged mob that was about to kill him (Luke 4:29-30), so that he could teach other people somewhere else (Luke 4:31).

David didn't walk away from the giant because he was under the Old Covenant, where it was okay to hate and kill the enemies of Israel (1 Samuel 17:45-54). Indeed, it was David who intentionally looked for a fight with the giant (1 Samuel 17:32). But under the New Covenant, believers must love their enemies (Matthew 5:43-44) and never fight against them physically (2 Corinthians 10:3-5), even in revenge if they're physically hit by their enemies (Matthew 5:39). They that take up the sword shall perish with the sword (Matthew 26:52).

The Bible doesn't say that Lot and his family were persecuted in Sodom before the angels arrived. And after they arrived, Lot's house got surrounded by a mob (Genesis 19:4) which was about to break down his door (Genesis 19:9). So Lot and his family couldn't have walked away; they were trapped in their house. It was only by a miracle performed by the angels that Lot and his family weren't all killed (Genesis 19:11).

Just as Lot was commanded to escape to the mountains (Genesis 19:17), so the church has been commanded to escape to the mountains when it sees the abomination of desolation spoken of by Daniel the prophet (Matthew 24:15, Daniel 11:31,36, 2 Thessalonians 2:4), which will begin the Antichrist's 42-month world reign and persecution of the church (Revelation 13:5-10, 14:12-13, 20:4).
 
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Thanks for letting me review these.

I will pass on them (at this time, anyway) because I either consider their main points covered by various sections of the blog, or because they didn't grab me, or because I don't want to poke my finger in the eye of any fellow believers, judging them personally.

--

Can you post 3 more entries that aren't in the blog?

Thanks.
 
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ThomasGuthler

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Some more entries:


It's possible that Satan invented the false hope of a pre-trib rapture, insofar as he...

http://www.christianforums.com/thre...correct-problems.7277126/page-2#post-48525606 (see also whole page 2)

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In Exodus 28:2,40, Aaron was a type for Jesus (Hebrews 3:1), and Aaron's sons were a type for the church (Revelation 21:7, 1:6, 5:10, 20:6).

~

"And Moses brought Aaron and his sons, and washed them with water." (Leviticus 8:6)

The high-priest Aaron and the Aaronic priesthood in Leviticus 8:6 typified Christ and the priesthood of Melchizedek:

"The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek" (Psalms 110:4).

"... even Jesus, made an high priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec" (Hebrews 6:20).

It is in this order that all those in the Church, through Christ, have already been made priests:

"And hath made us kings and priests" (Revelation 1:6).

"... ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood" (1 Peter 2:9).

"... are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ" (1 Peter 2:5).

"And Moses brought Aaron' sons, and put coats upon them, and girded them with girdles, and put bonnets upon them; as the LORD commanded Moses." (Leviticus 8:13)

The garments of the priests of Leviticus 8:13 typified the garments which the priesthood of the Church has already received:

"Behold, I come as a thief. Blessed is he that watcheth, and keepeth his garments" (Revelation 16:15).

"Thou hast a few names even in Sardis which have not defiled their garments" (Revelation 3:4).

"And Moses took of the anointing oil, and of the blood which was upon the altar, and sprinkled it upon Aaron, and upon his garments, and upon his sons, and upon his sons'garments with him; and sanctified Aaron, and his garments, and his sons, and his sons'garments with him." (Leviticus 8:30)

The sanctification by sacrificial blood in Leviticus 8:30 typified the Church's sanctification by the sacrificial blood of Jesus:

"Wherefore Jesus also, that he might sanctify the people with his own blood ..." (Hebrews 13:12).

"... we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all" (Hebrews 10:10).

~

Deuteronomy 30 foretold the people of the southern kingdom of Judah being brought back from their Babylonian captivity (Deuteronomy 30:3, Ezra 2:1) to the land (Deuteronomy 30:5) and to loving the Lord their God (Deuteronomy 30:6), while still under the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Deuteronomy 30:2), with all their heart, mind, soul, and strength, just as commanded under the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Deuteronomy 6:5).

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Deuteronomy 30 was fulfilled as early as the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple in 586 B.C. (2 Chronicles 36:17-19), the subsequent Babylonian Captivity (2 Chronicles 36:20-21), and the subsequent return of the Jews from that captivity (2 Chronicles 36:22-23, Ezra).

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Deuteronomy 31:17-18 foretold the curses that would come upon Israel and Judah because of their breaking of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Deuteronomy 31:16,20).

All of the curses of Deuteronomy 31:16-29, Leviticus 26:14-39 for breaking the Mosaic law had come upon Israel in ancient times, long before Jesus' first coming to abolish that law and its curse and replace it with the New Covenant at his death (Matthew 26:28, Hebrews 9:15-16).

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Hebrews 10:30, Psalms 50:4-5 (cf. Mark 13:27), and Daniel 12:7 (cf. Revelation 13:5-10) show that Deuteronomy 32:36 does apply to the church.

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Sex before marriage falls under the sin of fornication. If one cannot contain oneself from committing fornication, one can pray for a wife: "if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn" (1 Corinthians 7:9). If one prays, Jesus can work a miracle and bring a woman into one's life whom one will want to marry: "Hitherto have ye asked nothing in my name: ask, and ye shall receive" (John 16:24). "Ye have not, because ye ask not" (James 4:2).

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"10 And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: 11 But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife." (1 Corinthians 7:10-11)

Note that this is not some idea of Paul's, but the command of the Lord himself.

Of course, such restrictions have been basically thrown out the window by the church. Even the Catholic Church, which still abides by the restrictions in name, still gets around them by its invention of annulments, even in cases where a man has married a virgin wife. And almost all Protestant churches have become conformed to this world regarding marriage, permitting divorce and remarriage for any reason whatsoever, insteading of sticking with what the scriptures themselves teach.

~

Q: There´s no scripture where a divorced man can remarry if the wife divorced him from my understanding.
A: Note that there's no scripture where he can't.

Q: If the divorced man remarries there´s no chance of restoring the first marriage, so he can but it would be better not to remarry, Mt. 19/6.
A: The 1st (if valid) marriage can (and should) be restored (Matthew 19:6).

Q: What about marriages between unbelievers, is there any difference regarding divorce and remarriage?
A:No, for (if the marriages are valid) they're a matter of literal flesh (Matthew 19:6,9), not belief.

Q: If the divorced man remarries a valid wife his first wife can also remarry?
A: If his 1st wife was invalid and had no other, valid (and still living) husband.

Q: Covenant only by a legal marriage?
A: If you mean legal by a man-made, civil license, it's not required for a God-joined union to be valid.

Q: The divorced man can remarry without committing the sin of adultery, but when his first wife wants him back he must divorce from his 2nd marriage?
A: Yes to the 1st part, no to the 2nd. He can return to his 1st valid wife without having to divorce the 2nd.

Q: So today a man can be married to two women at the same time without him committing adultery?
A: Yes (e.g. Matthew 19:9).

Q: Why can a wife not be married to two men, why only men can remarry?
A: Why can only men teach (1 Timothy 2:11-14; 1 Corinthians 14:34-37)?

Q: Is there a difference between a one-flesh-union in a marriage and if someone is committing adultery?
A: Yes, if you mean a valid marriage.
 
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Thank you for saving these.

Regarding the 1st entry, it could be called the ultimate raison d'etre for what I do here, to prepare the church to endure the future tribulation with knowledge and understanding, and not to commit apostasy. I hope to add the 1st entry (page 2) as 4 new (7th to 10th) sections under *Mt. 24:31. I will skip the other entries at this time.

Can you post 3 more entries that aren't in the blog?

Thanks.
 
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ThomasGuthler

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Regarding the 1st entry, it could be called the ultimate raison d'etre for what I do here, to prepare the church to endure the future tribulation with knowledge and understanding, and not to commit apostasy. I hope to add the 1st entry (page 2) as 4 new (7th to 10th) sections under *Mt. 24:31.

Maybe we are just (some months) before the tribulation at the moment. Glad you liked the posts on page 2 and could integrate them into the blog.


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Some more entries:

When Richman says that "the Holy Temple will once again stand on Mount Moriah ...

http://www.christianforums.com/thre...he-wings-of-the-temple.7298714/#post-50116754
(see the whole page 1)

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The "life" of Matthew 7:14 is the "life" which is opposed to being cast into the lake of fire (Matthew 18:8), which is the second death (Revelation 21:8). The "life" of Matthew 7:14 is the "life" of 1 John 5:12, eternal life, salvation, which comes only through faith in Jesus (John 3:16,36). Matthew 7:14 means that only a relatively few people will be saved. [...only some men being saved is sufficient to fulfill God's eternal plan, which was to elect and save only some men as vessels of mercy, while creating unelect men as vessels of wrath (Romans 9:11-23).]

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In Matthew 23:35, the Zacharias slain between the temple and the altar could be the one in 2 Chronicles 24:20-21, which the temporal generation of Jesus' day didn't slay. And yet Jesus says to them "YE" slew Zacharias (Matthew 23:35). So the generation Jesus is talking about in Matthew 23:36 could be no mere temporal generation, but a figurative generation of the wicked of all times (Proverbs 30:11-14).

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The holy city in Matthew 27:53 is the earthly Jerusalem, just as it is in Matthew 4:5, Revelation 11:2, Daniel 9:24, Isaiah 52:1, and Nehemiah 11:1,18 [even in some scriptures referring to end-time earthly Jerusalem (e.g. Daniel 11:45, Joel 2:1)].

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Luke 23:30 can include reference to the fall of Jerusalem in 70 AD (Luke 23:28-30).

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Mark 10:30-31 makes no distinction between Jews and Gentiles, but refers to those in the church who "in the world to come" (Mark 10:30b) will obtain eternal life (Titus 1:2) bodily (Romans 8:23-25) at the second coming (1 Corinthians 15:22-23,52-54, 1 Thessalonians 4:14-16, Revelation 20:4-6), no matter whether they're Jews in the church (Romans 11:1, Acts 22:3) or Gentiles in the church (Romans 11:17, 16:4b, Acts 10:45).

Mark 10:31 simply means that many in the church who are now first in the church will become last in the church "in the world to come" (Mark 10:30b), and that many in the church who are now last in the church will become first in the church in the world to come, for in the world to come God won't necessarily position everyone in the church the same way that people have currently positioned everyone in the church, often based on how they appear outwardly (John 7:24), instead of based on the actual condition of their hearts, which only God can know (1 Samuel 16:7b).

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God does expect his children to forgive others unconditionally (Mark 11:25-26), because his children are sinners themselves, just as others are (Romans 3:9). But because God is not a sinner himself (Deuteronomy 32:4), and because he is the Creator of everyone (Romans 9:21), he has the right to forgive others conditionally.

The point of God's forgiveness is to keep his children from eternal torment in the lake of fire (Revelation 21:8, 14:10-11). His terms are that they do three things: keep their faith in Jesus' atoning blood (Romans 3:25), repent from their sins (Hebrews 10:26-27), and obey what he commands them to do (Matthew 7:21). And God helps his children to do all three of these things (Hebrews 12:2, Galatians 5:16, Philippians 2:13).

It's not so much that God retracts his forgiveness for any instance of sin which he has already forgiven; it's more that he only extends his forgiveness to instances of sin that are past (Romans 3:25), instances of sin that have been repented from and confessed to him (1 John 1:9). He does not extend his forgiveness to sins which are presently being continued in without repentance (Hebrews 10:26-27). So this goes back to his terms for initial forgiveness, which he has the right to set, whereas we sinful humans have no right to set any terms for our forgiveness of others.

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Luke 4:18 refers to more than just one kind of poor person, for Jesus came to preach the true gospel not only to the physically poor, but also to those who are physically rich yet spiritually poor and in need (Revelation 3:17), for even the physically rich can go to hell after they die (Luke 16:22-24, Matthew 16:26).

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The acceptable "year" (Luke 4:19) doesn't have to be literal, but could refer to a particular, though indefinite, period of time, which could have arrived in the first century. It doesn't have to be the Day of the Lord, but could be the same as the non-literal "day" of salvation which came into effect in the first century (2 Corinthians 6:2) and continues on still today, all based on Jesus' preaching (John 3:16).

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John 3:29 doesn't mean that John the Baptist isn't in the bride; it only means that he isn't the bridegroom (John 3:28). Everyone in the bride can say John 3:29, for everyone in the bride is a friend of the bridegroom (John 15:13-15, cf. Song of Songs 5:16b).

John the Baptist became part of the church when all of the old testament believers became part of the church: After Jesus' resurrection, Jesus went down into Hades (Ephesians 4:9) to preach the fulfillment of the gospel (1 Peter 3:19) to all those who had died (1 Peter 4:6) in faith (Hebrews 11:13) up to that time. He then drew all of their now New-Covenant covered souls up out of Hades and into heaven (Ephesians 4:8) to be with him as the church in New Jerusalem (Hebrews 12:22-24).

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Those who seriously seek God in the Old Testament will be pointed toward Jesus Christ, but only if they're willing to be pointed toward Jesus Christ (John 5:39-40).

Those who claim to be seriously seeking God in the Old Testament, but who are unwilling to be pointed toward Jesus Christ, aren't seriously seeking God in the Old Testament (John 5:46-47), but are instead seeking the approval of a certain man or men (John 5:43-44, Luke 16:15, Matthew 23:5).

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John 17:3 doesn't mean that we can know God apart from repenting from our sins (1 John 3:6) and doing good works (Jeremiah 22:16).

Christians "are in the world" (John 17:11), even though "they are not of the world" (John 17:14).

"I also sent them into the world" (John 17:18).

"I pray not that thou shouldest take them out of the world, but that thou shouldest keep them from the evil" (John 17:15).

~

Jesus asked John 21:22 only as a hypothetical to get the apostle Peter to confront any envy he might have over Peter's having to die a martyr's death (John 21:18-19) while the apostle John might not have to because John was "the disciple whom Jesus loved" (John 21:20). John 21:23 makes clear that in John 21:22 Jesus wasn't saying that John wouldn't die before Jesus came back.
 
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ThomasGuthler

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Isaiah 53 was a prophetic vision, in which the death of Jesus for our sins was shown to the prophet Isaiah centuries before it happened. Prophetic visions (e.g. 1 Samuel 3:15, Acts 26:19, 18:9, 10:3) can include explicit statements of things to come (e.g. 1 Samuel 3:12-15, Acts 26:16-18, 18:10, 10:6b).

It is simply incorrect to insist that Isaiah 53 couldn't have been a vision in the sense of it being seen by Isaiah, for there is not a single statement that "I didn't see" or "he didn't see" or any similar language anywhere in the pronouncement.

And since when is the statement "I saw" or "he saw" or any similar language anywhere in a pronouncement required for that pronouncement to be able to be referred to as a vision?

For example, where does it say that Nathan "saw" anything in the pronouncement of 2 Samuel 7:4-16?

In the Bible, a "vision" doesn't have to be visual; the original Hebrew word translated as "vision" in 2 Samuel 7:17, for example, can simply mean "revelation", even one that is only heard in one's mind. So even if it could be proven that Isaiah only heard the words of Isaiah 53 in his mind (which it can't), how would even that require that Isaiah 53 couldn't be called a "vision" in the sense of a revelation, in the sense of Christ's death for our sins being shown to Isaiah?

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Regarding the Ethiopian eunuch, he was wondering who Isaiah 53 was referring to:

Acts 8:34 ...And the eunuch answered Philip, and said, I pray thee, of whom speaketh the prophet this? of himself, or of some other man? 35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and preached unto him Jesus.

If the New Testament had been written by that time, the eunuch could have read from the Bible itself that Isaiah 53 is referring to Jesus:

1 Peter 2:24 ... by whose stripes ye were healed.

Isaiah 53:5 ... with his stripes we are healed.

So the Bible itself answers the eunuch's question.

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Isaiah 53:10 ... it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand. 11 He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities.

This doesn't mean that God took pleasure in Jesus' suffering itself. God is not a sadist. All it means is that God had the desire to offer Jesus as a sacrifice for our sins; what pleased God was that Jesus' suffering and death would pay for our sins.

Just as God had the desire to offer Jesus as a sacrifice for our sins so that He could show mercy to the vessels of mercy, so God has the desire to show His wrath to the vessels of wrath.

God won't take pleasure in the eternal suffering of the vessels of wrath in hell, but He will take pleasure in that He will be able to show His wrath, and to make His power known.

Ezekiel 33:11 ...As I live, saith the Lord GOD, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked ...

Proverbs 16:4 ...The LORD hath made all things for himself: yea, even the wicked for the day of evil.

Revelation 4:11 ...Thou art worthy, O Lord, to receive glory and honour and power: for thou hast created all things, and for thy pleasure they are and were created.
 
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ThomasGuthler said in post 73:

Maybe we are just (some months) before the tribulation at the moment.

Or perhaps some years, yet still within our lifetime.

For Matthew 24:34 could mean that the temporal generation which would see the 1948 AD reestablishment of Israel, which could be symbolized by the rebudding of the fig tree (Matthew 24:32-34; cf. Matthew 21:19,43, Hosea 9:10, Joel 1:6-7, Luke 13:6-9), won't pass, i.e. won't die off completely, until the future tribulation and 2nd coming of Matthew 24 and Revelation chapters 6 to 19 are fulfilled. A temporal generation may not pass until 70 or 80 years (Psalms 90:10), or 120 years (Genesis 6:3).

This doesn't require that the 2nd coming will occur right before, like one year before, that generation will pass: i.e. 69, or 79, or 119 years after 1948: in 2017, 2027, or 2067. And if the tribulation which will immediately precede the 2nd coming and rapture (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6) will last 7 years (Daniel 9:27), the tribulation's first year didn't have to be in 2011, and won't have to be in 2021 or 2061, but could be in a future year (e.g. 2020) earlier than 2021.

Matthew 24:34 could also include the meaning that the figurative, all-times generation of the elect (Matthew 24:22, Luke 16:8b; 1 Peter 2:9, Colossians 3:12; 1 Thessalonians 1:4) won't pass away from the earth during the future tribulation of Matthew 24 and Revelation chapters 6 to 18, but that some of the elect will survive (Matthew 24:22) until Jesus' 2nd coming (1 Thessalonians 4:15-17; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-53), immediately after the tribulation (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6).

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The rebudding of the fig tree (Matthew 24:32) can refer to the 1948 reestablishment of Israel, just as Jesus' cursing of the literal, fruitless fig tree (Matthew 21:19) foreshadowed his curse on the part of Old Covenant Israel which rejected him (Matthew 21:43), for a fig tree can represent Israel (Hosea 9:10, Joel 1:6-7, Luke 13:6-9). And the Israel which was reestablished in 1948 is the same Old Covenant Israel which Jesus cursed at his first coming. For it still rejects Jesus and still considers itself to be under the Old Covenant. This Israel merely "putting forth leaves" again (Matthew 24:32) in 1948 was nothing more than a restoration to what the fig tree in Matthew 21:19,43 had been before it was cursed by Jesus and then destroyed in 70 AD: a tree with leaves, but without any fruit. And the unbelieving, Old Covenant Israel which was reestablished in 1948 may never bear fruit. For it could be destroyed before Jesus' 2nd coming, during a future war, by a Baathist army, just as it had been destroyed in 70 AD by a Roman-empire army.

But Jesus' kingdom is still called "Israel" (John 1:49, John 12:13-15, John 19:19, Luke 22:30). And at Jesus' 2nd coming, he will sit on the earthly throne of David (Luke 1:32-33, Isaiah 9:7), and restore the kingdom to Israel (Acts 1:6-7, Acts 3:20-21). Jesus is, in his humanity, the son of David (Matthew 1:1, Matthew 21:15-16, Romans 1:3), of the house of David (Luke 1:69). So at Jesus' 2nd coming, he will restore the tabernacle, the house, of David (Isaiah 16:5, Amos 9:11) to its royal glory (2 Samuel 5:12), which it had lost (2 Kings 17:21a). And Jesus will fulfill the prophecy and prayer of 2 Samuel 7:16-29. And he will bring salvation to all the still-living, unbelieving elect Jews of the house of David. For they (along with all other still-living, unbelieving elect Jews) will come into faith in him when they see him at his 2nd coming (Zechariah 12:10-14, Zechariah 13:1,6, Romans 11:26-31). And so they will all become part of the church at that time, for now there are no believers outside of the church (Ephesians 4:4-6).

After Jesus' 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:3, Zechariah 14:3-5) will occur the millennium (Revelation 20:4-6, Zechariah 14:8-21), during which time the Gentile nations will come to seek the returned Jesus ruling the whole earth (Zechariah 8:22, Zechariah 14:9, Psalms 72:8-11) on the restored throne of David (Isaiah 9:7) in the earthly Jerusalem (Isaiah 2:1-4, Zechariah 14:8-11,16-19). And the physically resurrected church will reign on the earth with Jesus during the millennium (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29). For the church is Israel (Romans 11:1,17,24, Ephesians 2:12,19, Galatians 3:29, Revelation 21:9,12; 1 Peter 2:9-10).

--

Throughout history, Ezekiel 21:27a could include the meaning that Jerusalem (Ezekiel 21:22) must be overturned, in the sense of completely destroyed, 3 separate times: once in 586 BC (by the Babylonians), then again in 70 AD (by the Romans), and then again at some point in our future (by the Antichrist), right before Jesus' 2nd coming (Ezekiel 21:27b).

Also, compare the idea of some people that Amos 9:15 applies to the reestablishment of Israel in 1948 AD. But Amos 9:15 could refer to what will happen only at Jesus' 2nd coming (Isaiah 9:7, Amos 9:11). For Amos 9:14-15 was spoken before the taking of the northern kingdom of Israel into captivity (Amos 8:14, Amos 5:27) by the Assyrians in 722 BC. And so Amos 9:14-15 was spoken before the southern kingdom of Judah was taken into captivity by the Babylonians in 586 BC. But Amos 9:14-15 didn't apply to the post-Babylonian-Captivity restoration of the Jews to their land in 538 BC, for that restoration was subsequently destroyed by a Roman-empire army in 70 AD. So Amos 9:14-15 doesn't necessarily apply to the subsequent restoration of the Jews to their land in 1948 AD either. This restoration could be destroyed by the Baathists in a future war (Daniel 11:15-17; in verse 17 the original Hebrew word translated as "daughter" is "bath"), at the start of the future tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24. But (again) Jesus will restore the Davidic kingdom of Israel (Luke 1:32b-33, Isaiah 9:7, Amos 9:11) at his 2nd coming (Acts 1:6-7, Acts 3:20-21), which will occur immediately after the tribulation (Matthew 24:29-31, Revelation 19:2 to 20:6; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8).

ThomasGuthler said in post 73:

Some more entries . . .

Thank you for letting me review these.

I will pass on them, at least for now.

But regarding post #69 of this thread, I hope to add a (slightly softened) part of its 1st entry as a new (2nd) section under *Eph. 3:1.

Thank you for helping me to make this addition to the blog.

--

Can you post 3 more entries that aren't in the blog?

Thanks.
 
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ThomasGuthler

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Or perhaps some years, yet still within our lifetime.

For Matthew 24:34 could mean that the temporal generation which would see the 1948 AD reestablishment of Israel ...

There´s an older post from you regarding that top:

Daniel 9:24-27 [...] the Hebrew word translated as 70 "weeks" is from a word which means "to be complete", so that the 70 "weeks" could be 70 "to be completed", which could be 70 years to be completed, from the time that a commandment goes forth to restore Israel until Jesus has returned and fulfilled all of the requirements of Daniel 9:24 in the earthly Jerusalem.

Daniel 9:25a could refer to Israel in 1967 commanding that all of Jerusalem be restored to Israeli control and its ruined portions rebuilt.

… and Daniel 9:25b could mean that Jesus will return 69 years after that commandment.

Daniel 9:26a could refer to a false ultra-Orthodox Jewish "Messiah" having a treaty "cut" with him by the Antichrist only 62 years after that commandment.

This would bump everything [...] to around 2030.

~

Another possibility is that the rebudding of the fig tree could represent the re-establishment of the state of Israel's control over all of Jerusalem and "Samaria and Judaea" in the war of 1967. In this case, the second coming could occur 69 years later, in 2036, and the future tribulation could begin in 2030.

Other possibilities are based on the latter part of Psalms 90:10, where a generation can last 80 years, and Genesis 6:3, where a generation can last 120 years. Depending on whether one starts counting from 1947 or 1967, the future seven-year tribulation could begin in 2020, 2040, 2060, or 2080.

Matthew 24:32-34 and Daniel 9:25 could be two different witnesses [...] as the date of Jesus' return:

"In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established" (2 Corinthians 13:1).

--

Some other entries:

In order to recognize the Antichrist if he is standing in front of our face …

http://www.christianforums.com/thre...cy-theories-have-merit.7280241/#post-48588229 (see also the rest of the thread)

--

Quote: „Homosexuality has been proven to be genetic“

A: Even if it could be, so could be alcoholism, criminal violence, and schizophrenia. Human genes in their current, fallen, corrupted state have nothing to do with proving what is moral or what is good mental health.

~

While homosexual acts are sinful (Romans 1:26-27), we too easily forget that homosexuality (Genesis 19:4-5) wasn't the only sin of Sodom: "Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy" (Ezekiel 16:49). How many of us who love to rail against homosexual acts are nonetheless "just like Sodom" with regard to our pride, our fullness of bread, our abundance of idleness, or our refusal to strengthen the hand of the poor and needy? How many of us who in our self-righteousness love to place ourselves above homosexuals, even if we are completely free from all sin, will still be judged for our self-righteousness? (Luke 18:9-14).

For in the Bible, Christ taught through his apostle Paul that homosexuality is a sin: "for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet" (Romans 1:26-27).

Homosexual acts, if they are not repented of, will, like any other unrepented sin, keep someone from being saved: "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God" (1 Corinthians 6:9-10).

People are not set free from homosexual desires, or any other sinful desires, through legal restrictions placed upon them. For legal restrictions have no power at all against sinful desires, but can even help to revive and inflame them: "sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead. For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived" (Romans 7:8-9).

Only Jesus has the power to set people free from the sin of homosexuality, just as any other sin: "Jesus answered them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whosoever committeth sin is the servant of sin. And the servant abideth not in the house for ever: but the Son abideth ever. If the Son therefore shall make you free, ye shall be free indeed" (John 8:34-36).

Not realizing that something is a sin is a common failing among people, [...]. But someone could answer, "How in the world could he not realize that it's a sin, after what the Bible says? How can he go against God's Word?" Because even when people read the Bible, they can mistakenly reject what it says as the word of men and not God himself. Or they can simply close their eyes to what it says and pretend that it doesn't say what it says, but must mean something else.

The sin of second-marriage adultery is so widespread in America, even among nominal Christians, that it dwarfs the prevalance of the sin of homosexuality in America.

Similarly, the sin of covetousness is so widespread in America, even among nominal Christians, that it dwarfs the prevalance of the sin of homosexuality in America.

Sodom was destroyed not only for homosexuality (Jude 1:7), but for other sins as well:

"Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy" (Ezekiel 16:49).

These other sins of Sodom are far more rampant in America than homosexuality, even among nominal Christians.

So it's curious why the sin of homosexuality is so often singled out, and focused upon so much, by nominal Christians in America.

The wrath of God will come on all the children of disobedience (Colossians 3:6), even non-homosexuals who are in other sexual sins such as second-marriage adultery, or who are covetous (Colossians 3:5-6).

"For this ye know, that no whoremonger, nor unclean person, nor covetous man, who is an idolater, hath any inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and of God. Let no man deceive you with vain words: for because of these things cometh the wrath of God upon the children of disobedience" (Ephesians 5:5-6).

The list of sins which will keep even believers out of the kingdom of God (if they don't repent from them) is quite long. So why is there such a focus by believers upon homosexuality?

"Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness, Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies, Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told you in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God" (Galatians 5:19-21).

--

The stars which in their courses fought against Sisera (Judges 5:20) were not literal stars, which could not have come within a billion miles of Sisera without burning him and the entire planet earth to a cinder. The stars which fought against Sisera were angels, for stars can represent angels (Revelation 1:20). The Hebrew word in Judges 5:20 translated as the "courses" of the angels can mean the "staircases" of the angels, that is, how they come and go between heaven and earth. Compare the "ladder" which Jacob saw the angels ascending and descending on in Genesis 28:12; there the Hebrew word translated as "ladder", although different than the Hebrew word translated as "courses" in Judges 5:20, can also mean "staircase".

... the staircases must go all the way into the third heaven, for the angels enter into New Jerusalem in the third heaven (Hebrews 12:22).
 
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ThomasGuthler said in post 76:

Some other entries . . .

Thank you for saving these.

I hope to add parts of the *conspiracy theory entry as new sections (placed under the 2 *newspaper sections) under *Rev. chs. 6-22; and add a new entry under *Eph. 6:13. Also, I hope to add a paragraph at the end of the 2nd *newspaper entry.

I hope to add parts of the *homosexuality entry as a new entry under *Rom. 1:26, and add the Judg. 5:20 entry as a new entry under *Judg. 5:20.

-

Thank you for helping me to make these additions to the blog.

Can you post 3 more entries that aren't yet in the blog?
 
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ThomasGuthler

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Some more entries:



Note that the Bible nowhere teaches that the Rapture will be before the Tribulation.

http://www.christianforums.com/threads/creepy-666-is-comming.5251003/page-3#post-43922834

(see the whole thread)

--

Isaiah 61:10 refers to the same symbolic clothing as Revelation 19:8, which represents the righteousness of the saints (Revelation 19:8b) which they have now through faith in Jesus (Romans 3:22), just as they have salvation now through faith in him (2 Timothy 3:15).

~

The three unclean spirits like frogs in Revelation 16:13 are three spirits of devils (Revelation 16:14) who could be anywhere at this time, living in any person or animal (cf. Mark 5:13) or just wandering over the earth (cf. Matthew 12:43). But by the time of Revelation 16:13 they will have come to live in Satan, the Antichrist, and the False Prophet.

~

Our English word "worship", as Christians use it, means reverence paid to God; it comes from a Middle English word literally meaning "worthiness". When we "worship" God we are saying that he is "worthy": "worship him that liveth for ever and ever . . . Thou art worthy, O Lord, to receive glory and honour and power: for thou hast created all things, and for thy pleasure they are and were created" (Revelation 4:10b-11). Note that here God's "worthiness", his "worship", is connected with his identity as the sole Creator of everything. Here the original Greek word translated as "worship" means to revere, and the original Greek word translated as "worthy" means deserving. As Creator, God is deserving of reverence from all of his creatures. As God the Word, Jesus Christ himself is the Creator of everything that exists (John 1:1-3,14, Colossians 1:16-18), for God created everything by speaking his Word (Genesis 1:3, Hebrews 11:3). So Christians worship Jesus no less than God the Father (John 20:28); Jesus and the Father are one God (John 10:30). We must worship God in this truth (John 4:24b, John 14:6), and in God's Holy Spirit (John 4:24), who is one God with the Father, and with God the Son (Hebrews 1:8), Jesus Christ (John 10:36, 3:36, Matthew 28:19, Romans 8:9). [Note that Jesus doesn't tell people not to worship him, or praise him.]

It's not that God needs glory from us, for God doesn't need anything. But it is to his pleasure to be glorified, and he created everything for his pleasure (Revelation 4:11). And because his Consciousness is infinite, he can never max out on pleasure. Also, the glory that God gets by his work on the earth is not just the glory that we give him (e.g. Romans 15:9), but also the glory given to him from all of the angels in heaven (even the fallen), who can better realize (or be forced to admit) how great God's wisdom is by watching what he's doing on the earth with the church (Ephesians 3:10).

~

[*Daniel 12:1]

The name Mihai is from the Hebrew "Michael": it's asking the question, "Who is like the Lord?", and so is exactly the opposite of being descriptive, as in the person with that name claiming to be like the Lord.

~

Regarding [...] Daniel 4:25-26, "The most High ruleth in the kingdom of men, and giveth it to whomsoever he will", that means that the human rulers of the world are ultimately determined by God: "The powers that be are ordained of God" (Romans 13:1).

--

Actually, the Mosaic tabernacle's being a copy or picture of the heavenlies could prove that God's
dwelling place is higher than and separated from the dwelling place of the sun, just as the Holy of Holies is spiritually higher than and separated from the dwelling place of the seven lights of the menorah in the Holy place, for the seven lights could include reference to the seven main lights in the sky of the earth (after which also the seven days of our week were named by the pagans): the sun (Sunday), the moon (Monday), the fourth planet from the sun (which the pagans named Mars and Tiu -- Tuesday), the first planet from the sun (which the pagans named Mercury and Woden -- Wednesday), the fifth planet from the sun (which the pagans named Jupiter and Thor -- Thursday), the second planet from the sun (which the pagans named Venus and Frigga -- Friday), and the
sixth planet from the sun (which the pagans named Saturn -- Saturday). [Thursday isn't the same as Tuesday because they're named after different pagan gods. Thursday is "Thor's day", while Tuesday is "Tiw's day".] These seven "planets", or "wandering stars", were to the ancients the seven most important lights of the heavenlies.

And so, by the same token, if the seven lights of the Mosaic menorah (Exodus 25:37) included reference to God's seven lights of the heavenlies (which include the sun), then the twelve loaves of shewbread (Leviticus 24:5-6, Exodus 25:30), which were placed on a table in the same room (the same "heaven") of the tabernacle as the menorah could include reference to the twelve constellations of the Mazzaroth (Job 38:32), which the pagans named the Zodiac.

And God's dwelling place is not in the same room (the same "heaven") of the tabernacle as the seven lights of the menorah and the twelve loaves of the table, but is separated from it (Exodus 26:32-33), which separation would represent the dimensional separation between the third heaven, the spiritual realm where God's throne is (Revelation 4:2; 2 Corinthians 12:2), and the second heaven, the physical realm where the sun and moon and five other "planets" known to the ancients, and the stars of the Mazzeroth are.

So the seven lights which are before God's throne in the third heaven (Revelation 4:5) could include symbolic reference to the seven lights in the second heaven (outer space) which appear in the first heaven (the sky) of the earth as the seven most important lights to men dwelling on the earth. And even though the sun appears to men as the most important, it is in fact still infinitely beneath God's glorious dwelling place which is high "above" it (and all the other 100 billion times 100 billion other stars in the second heaven), in the third heaven.
 
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More entries:


Jesus can plainly say, for example, "except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish" (Luke 13:3), but once-saved-always-saved answers "Oh, no, Jesus didn't mean that; there's no need to repent.

http://www.christianforums.com/thre...ower-of-darkness.7369835/page-9#post-52119364

(see the whole thread beginning with #40)

--

"9 There remaineth therefore a rest [sabbatismos] to the people of God. 10 For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his" (Hebrews 4:9-10).

Hebrews 4:10a is referring to the continual New Covenant Sabbath rest which only believers in Jesus enter into (Hebrews 4:3a).

Hebrews 4:10b isn't referring to the Old Covenant one-day-of-the-week Sabbath rest, but to the one-time rest of God the day after he created the world (Genesis 2:2-3). Since then God has worked, even on the seventh day of the week (John 5:17).

~

Q: Is Sunday worship the mark of the beast?

A: Revelation 13:17 shows that if one refuses to receive the mark, one won't be able to buy or sell, so having or not having the mark will be something which will have application to every day of the week, for people buy and sell every day of the week.

~

Genesis 3:15 could be understood as follows: "And I will put enmity between thee [Satan] and the woman [Eve], and between thy seed [those who will never be saved, e.g. John 8:42-47] and her seed [Christ, and those He will save through His death, Isaiah 53:10]; it [Christ and those He will save] shall bruise thy head [Romans 16:20], and thou shalt bruise his heel [Satan will get Christ killed through Judas; Luke 22:3-6].

~

Q: Why did Jesus say the mustard seed is the smallest?

A: It was the smallest seed sown in the earth by his hearers (Mark 4:31).

~

The Hebrew name "Mahanaim" (4266) in Genesis 32:2 isn't indicative of an ekklesia, as in a New Covenant church (Acts 20:28, Matthew 26:28), for the Hebrew word "mahanaim" simply means "two camps". Jacob could have named a certain place "Two Camps" when he saw that beside his own camp was a camp of God's angels (Genesis 32:1-2), and/or when he out of fear of Esau divided his own camp into two camps (Genesis 32:7).

~

Eating wasn't the problem with Lucifer, pride was (Ezekiel 28:17). But his having to eat, as all angels may have to eat (Psalms 78:25), could have been instituted by God as a reminder to him of his total dependence on God for his continued existence, to help him to remain humble before God. Lucifer either forgot the reason why God has His creatures need to eat, or he thought that he could provide his own food forever even in rebellion against God, or he was rebelling precisely against the whole dependence-on-God thing (Matthew 6:11), unable to bear it, and so was driven by his pride to rebel against God no matter what the ultimate consequences, even if it meant he would ultimately be completely cut off from all life and be cast into the eternal torment of the second death, the lake of fire (Revelation 20:10,15, 21:8, Matthew 25:41,46).

~

"Lucifer" (Isaiah 14:12) could be a proper name for the devil in the sense that any functional title, such as "Smith", "Carpenter", "Taylor" can be a proper name. "Lucifer", like the original Hebrew "heylel", means the morning star, and so could apply as a title to one serving in a function with relation to God the Father similar to how the morning star functions in relation to the sun, that is, as the brightest herald.

The devil could have held the office of morning star before he fell from it through rebellion and became "Satan" (Luke 10:18), a title which means "The Adversary". Jesus, as a man, has taken over the office of morning star (Revelation 22:16). But it would be best not to address Jesus by the title "Lucifer" for fear of invoking the devil instead, for many of the devil's followers still call upon him by that name and even call themselves Luciferians. The Antichrist will bring the whole world into the worship of the dragon the devil (Revelation 13:4, 12:9), probably under the name Lucifer, as opposed to the name Satan, which the Antichrist could instead apply solely to YHWH, whom he will utterly revile (Revelation 13:6).
 
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