Did the Virgin Mary remain a virgin?

Did the Virgin Mary remain a virgin?

  • Yes

  • No


Results are only viewable after voting.

Standing Up

On and on
Sep 3, 2008
25,360
2,757
Around about
✟66,235.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
Here are some Protestant Bible versions of Isaiah 7,14:

Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel.
[NIV]

Conceive means pregnant with child.
Bear the child (give birth) means to bring forth, birth, travail.

The virgin conceived and bore a son. She was a virgin at His conception and remained a virgin till His birth.

The verse has nothing to do with her state thereafter. But we know Christ opened the womb, thus virginity ended at His very normal human birth in the normal way.
 
Upvote 0

Standing Up

On and on
Sep 3, 2008
25,360
2,757
Around about
✟66,235.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
Maybe the reason people argue so fiercely against the doctrine of Mary's perpetual virginity is not so much her perpetual virginity but the fact that it naturally would lead one to the Immaculate Conception and that would really drive some people nuts. Innovation is certainly needed to provide a biblical case against either the IC or PV
As pointed out, EO don't come to RC's conclusion about IC. IC really is just a dogma built on bad science; it was the false idea that the mother gave the baby her blood. So, Mary's blood had to be pure, thus IC.
 
Upvote 0

Standing Up

On and on
Sep 3, 2008
25,360
2,757
Around about
✟66,235.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
All the 180 Church Fathers, except Tertullian, asserted that Mary remained a virgin.
Not true at all. Scripture, Tertullian (Alexandria), Africanus, Irenaeus, Clement of Alexandria, Cyril of Jerusalem all maintained the idea that the virgin conceived and the virgin bore Immanuel to a normal human birth. Therefore, her virginity had ended at His very normal human birth.

It was the docetic Proto of James via Origen (Alexandria) that maintained an abnormal side birth of the King, which in turn would maintain her virginal state. These folks disagreed with the others that there was placenta, umbilical cord, blood and water at His birth. These folks believed Mary retained those things, or worse that Christ never was really joined to her, but passed through her as water through a straw.
 
Upvote 0

patricius79

Called to Jesus Through Mary
Sep 10, 2009
4,186
361
✟21,391.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Its kinda strange that people 2000 years removed think they understand the scripture and the details of Mary's life more than the first century christians, church fathers, etc who actual understood the language that the NT was written in, and spent copious amounts of time doing commentary and exegesis of every verse over thousands of years, and who all maintain that Blessed Mary remained a virgin after the birth of Christ...

I can't totally be surprised since I was once in that position, but it seems odd now being on the other side of the issue.

I agree. I don't think we should be trying to reinvent the wheel and assume that our modern opinions about the Scriptures are correct. Sometimes even if we don't understand something, we need to obey the Word of God, which says that Mary is Ever-Virgin.
 
Upvote 0

justinangel

Newbie
Feb 19, 2011
1,301
197
Btwn heaven & earth
✟13,949.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Private
Politics
CA-Conservatives
No sir, Jesus did no such thing. The Church (not as you define it) is led by the Holy Spirit. Your Church is led by a magesterium that claims to be led. Big difference between RC claims and reality.

There is only one Church which is visible and hierarchical under Christ and his Vicar. There is no invisible Church comprised of countless denominations. There wasn't in the NT and the early Church, and there never will be. That's reality.

The Bible may as well have dropped into our laps, for what part "The Church" played in it. Tradition has traditionally been the culprit in departations from what has been writtien even by God's own finger, in stone.

It wasn't God's finger that inscribed in stone in the 16th century for the first time ever that we are justified by faith alone. And ever since then sola Scriptura has done nothing but divide Christendom as individuals pick and choose what to believe, each one believing that the Holy Spirit is guiding them. But how can they know for sure who is right in their differences of opinion and belief? Jesus sent the Paraclete to guide his one visible and hierarchical Church and safeguard her from the gates of Hell (doctrinal error), not to individuals so that they may start their own church whose teachings are based on their unauthoritative private judgments.

So you admit James wasn't the author of what is only believed to be what he preached.
Pretty sketchy for dogma. Now I see why all that other eisegesis is necessary.
That Mary's post natal virginity was observed by apostles is a bald faced lie, patently absurd on the very face of it.

What's absurd is your notion of God defiling Mary and Joseph's marriage by getting her pregnant in violation of His own moral law. We have to look at the PVM within a Judaic context. We read in Luke 1:35: "The power of the Most High shall overshadow you." Laying one's power over a woman (resuth) is a Hebrew euphemism for having conjugal relations. So is the word "overshadow" (to lay one's cloak (tellal) over a woman). So morally Joseph could not have normal marital relations with Mary. Their marriage would have become adulterous and thereby legally invalid according to the Divine law if they had conjugal relations and children of their own.

The angel Gabriel spoke to Joseph in a dream after he discovered Mary was with child to reassure him that his wife hadn’t done anything unfaithful, but that the child she was carrying was conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit. (Mt.1 18-25). Until then Joseph had the legal right to file for divorce on the grounds of his wife’s alleged promiscuity. In fact, he had the right to publicly condemn her and have her stoned to death for having committed adultery (Deut. 22:22-29). But upon the angel’s visit the table had turned. Now Joseph had to consider whether he had any legal and moral right to go through with the second wedding ceremony, since his wife Mary had conceived a child by another Person. We know that he was a just man who faithfully observed the precepts of the Torah (Mt.1:14). However, the angel relieved Joseph of his fear when he instructed him to take Mary into his home as his lawful wife, but not to normally co-habit with her: “Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife” (Mt. 1:20). In the Greek translation from the original Hebrew, the prepositional phrase “to take home as your wife” reads paralambano gunaika. There was no need for the angel to tell Joseph that he shouldn’t be afraid to “come together” with his wife (bo-e-lei-ha imma) or “lay with” (vai-yish-kav imma) her (Gen. 30:3, 16-17), since the couple had already agreed to having a chaste marriage. But Joseph should know that their marriage was still valid before God for the reason that they shall not have conjugal relations and any children of their own following Mary’s conception of Jesus by the Holy Spirit.

This is what God intends to say in His written word: that morally and spiritually Mary belonged to God as His virgin bride in the figure of Daughter Zion, which confirms what the nascent church traditionally believed before Matthew and Luke were inspired to write their gospels. Similarly, the PVM was a part of the Apostolic Tradition before the POJ was written. No Church doctrine has ever originated from initially looking at the written word. Your conclusion is based on a faulty premise.


Enjoy your confidence in Sola Ecclesia while it lasts.

Actually the three pillars of truth in the Catholic Church are Scripture, Tradition, and Magisterium. We read in Matthew that Jesus founded his church on Peter and the Apostles, who were commissioned to preach the word of God and convey the sacraments. There's nothing about having to write the gospels and epistles, which were intended for the present generation in the first century to serve as an objective norm against current heretical teachings for the practical purpose of preserving church unity under the apostolic teaching authority. The NT wasn't written to substitute the One Apostolic Church as the rule of faith.

You, dear children, are from God and have overcome them, because the one who is in you is greater than the one who is in the world. They are from the world and therefore speak from the viewpoint of the world, and the world listens to them. We are from God, and whoever knows God listens to us; but whoever is not from God does not listen to us. This is how we recognize the Spirit and the spirit of falsehood.
1 John 4, 4-6


I wouldn't place any confidence in sola Scriptura, seeing the ever current state of fragmentation in Protestantism. Good luck!

PAX
:angel:
 
Upvote 0

justinangel

Newbie
Feb 19, 2011
1,301
197
Btwn heaven & earth
✟13,949.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Private
Politics
CA-Conservatives
As pointed out, EO don't come to RC's conclusion about IC. IC really is just a dogma built on bad science; it was the false idea that the mother gave the baby her blood. So, Mary's blood had to be pure, thus IC.

Incredible! :doh:
 
Upvote 0

justinangel

Newbie
Feb 19, 2011
1,301
197
Btwn heaven & earth
✟13,949.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Private
Politics
CA-Conservatives
Not true at all. Scripture, Tertullian (Alexandria), Africanus, Irenaeus, Clement of Alexandria, Cyril of Jerusalem all maintained the idea that the virgin conceived and the virgin bore Immanuel to a normal human birth. Therefore, her virginity had ended at His very normal human birth.

It was the docetic Proto of James via Origen (Alexandria) that maintained an abnormal side birth of the King, which in turn would maintain her virginal state. These folks disagreed with the others that there was placenta, umbilical cord, blood and water at His birth. These folks believed Mary retained those things, or worse that Christ never was really joined to her, but passed through her as water through a straw.

I've already refuted you on this score with regard to Clement and Cyril. So let it rest. :sleep:
 
Upvote 0

justinangel

Newbie
Feb 19, 2011
1,301
197
Btwn heaven & earth
✟13,949.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Private
Politics
CA-Conservatives
Conceive means pregnant with child.
Bear the child (give birth) means to bring forth, birth, travail.

The virgin conceived and bore a son. She was a virgin at His conception and remained a virgin till His birth.

The verse has nothing to do with her state thereafter. But we know Christ opened the womb, thus virginity ended at His very normal human birth in the normal way.

Do you expect me to take you seriously? :confused: She was a virgin at the time of our Lord's birth, when she brought him forth (yalad). I just love how you twist the meaning of words and draw nonsensical inferences to accommodate what you choose to believe and satisfy your bias.

PAX
:angel:
 
Upvote 0

justinangel

Newbie
Feb 19, 2011
1,301
197
Btwn heaven & earth
✟13,949.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Private
Politics
CA-Conservatives
r
They were identified as brothers prior at Luke 5:10. Point remains that the gospels identify the brothers. Obviously the three are not brothers, sons of Clopas.

and James the son of Alphaeus, and Thaddaeus, and Simon the Cananaean, and Judas Iscariot, who betrayed him.
Mark 3, 13-19

Hello? Simon the Zealot. Read the scripture.

The Gospel of Mark is Scripture. Or don't you think so? :confused:

"The name of Simon occurs in all the passages of the Gospel and Acts, in which a list of the Apostles is given. To distinguish him from St. Peter (Simon son of Jonas) he is called (Matthew 10:4; Mark 3:18) Kananaios, or Kananites, and Zelotes (Luke 6:15; Acts 1:13). Both surnames have the same signification and are a translation of the Hebrew qana (the Zealous). The name does not signify that he belonged to the party of Zealots, but that he had zeal for the Jewish law, which he practised before his call."

In the "Chronicon paschale" and elsewhere he is identified with Simon Clopas.
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/13796b.htm

I agree with the CP, since Simon is ranked together with James, son of Clopas/Alphaeus, and the other brothers in the list of the apostles.

Will you please do your homework and stop indulging in wishful thinking before you reply to my posts. Patience is one of my weaker virtues. :sigh:


PAX

:angel:
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

yesyoushould

Member
Jan 14, 2015
899
70
✟1,398.00
Faith
Christian
It's bad if Mary didn't remain a virgin, since both she and the Holy Spirit would have been adulterers. The moral implications in light of Mosaic law which was instituted by God Himself in His absolute righteousness mustn't be overlooked. Christians who reject this dogma really don't know God.

PAX
:angel:
I don't buy that. If she was a virgin when Jesus was conceived, I don't see your, "boo Holy Spirit mentality." Please stop.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Rick Otto

The Dude Abides
Nov 19, 2002
34,112
7,406
On The Prairie
✟29,593.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
There is only one Church which is visible and hierarchical under Christ and his Vicar. There is no invisible Church comprised of countless denominations. There wasn't in the NT and the early Church, and there never will be. That's reality.



It wasn't God's finger that inscribed in stone in the 16th century for the first time ever that we are justified by faith alone. And ever since then sola Scriptura has done nothing but divide Christendom as individuals pick and choose what to believe, each one believing that the Holy Spirit is guiding them. But how can they know for sure who is right in their differences of opinion and belief? Jesus sent the Paraclete to guide his one visible and hierarchical Church and safeguard her from the gates of Hell (doctrinal error), not to individuals so that they may start their own church whose teachings are based on their unauthoritative private judgments.



What's absurd is your notion of God defiling Mary and Joseph's marriage by getting her pregnant in violation of His own moral law. We have to look at the PVM within a Judaic context. We read in Luke 1:35: "The power of the Most High shall overshadow you." Laying one's power over a woman (resuth) is a Hebrew euphemism for having conjugal relations. So is the word "overshadow" (to lay one's cloak (tellal) over a woman). So morally Joseph could not have normal marital relations with Mary. Their marriage would have become adulterous and thereby legally invalid according to the Divine law if they had conjugal relations and children of their own.

The angel Gabriel spoke to Joseph in a dream after he discovered Mary was with child to reassure him that his wife hadn’t done anything unfaithful, but that the child she was carrying was conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit. (Mt.1 18-25). Until then Joseph had the legal right to file for divorce on the grounds of his wife’s alleged promiscuity. In fact, he had the right to publicly condemn her and have her stoned to death for having committed adultery (Deut. 22:22-29). But upon the angel’s visit the table had turned. Now Joseph had to consider whether he had any legal and moral right to go through with the second wedding ceremony, since his wife Mary had conceived a child by another Person. We know that he was a just man who faithfully observed the precepts of the Torah (Mt.1:14). However, the angel relieved Joseph of his fear when he instructed him to take Mary into his home as his lawful wife, but not to normally co-habit with her: “Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife” (Mt. 1:20). In the Greek translation from the original Hebrew, the prepositional phrase “to take home as your wife” reads paralambano gunaika. There was no need for the angel to tell Joseph that he shouldn’t be afraid to “come together” with his wife (bo-e-lei-ha imma) or “lay with” (vai-yish-kav imma) her (Gen. 30:3, 16-17), since the couple had already agreed to having a chaste marriage. But Joseph should know that their marriage was still valid before God for the reason that they shall not have conjugal relations and any children of their own following Mary’s conception of Jesus by the Holy Spirit.

This is what God intends to say in His written word: that morally and spiritually Mary belonged to God as His virgin bride in the figure of Daughter Zion, which confirms what the nascent church traditionally believed before Matthew and Luke were inspired to write their gospels. Similarly, the PVM was a part of the Apostolic Tradition before the POJ was written. No Church doctrine has ever originated from initially looking at the written word. Your conclusion is based on a faulty premise.




Actually the three pillars of truth in the Catholic Church are Scripture, Tradition, and Magisterium. We read in Matthew that Jesus founded his church on Peter and the Apostles, who were commissioned to preach the word of God and convey the sacraments. There's nothing about having to write the gospels and epistles, which were intended for the present generation in the first century to serve as an objective norm against current heretical teachings for the practical purpose of preserving church unity under the apostolic teaching authority. The NT wasn't written to substitute the One Apostolic Church as the rule of faith.

You, dear children, are from God and have overcome them, because the one who is in you is greater than the one who is in the world. They are from the world and therefore speak from the viewpoint of the world, and the world listens to them. We are from God, and whoever knows God listens to us; but whoever is not from God does not listen to us. This is how we recognize the Spirit and the spirit of falsehood.
1 John 4, 4-6


I wouldn't place any confidence in sola Scriptura, seeing the ever current state of fragmentation in Protestantism. Good luck!

PAX
:angel:
You can keep luck and Sola Ecclesia, as well as the delusion that an administrative declaration of unity that glosses over serious loyal opposition, is unity.
Your first sentence is a denial of reality and then you try and say the invisible church you say doesn't exist, is the visible one fractured by denominations.
You vacilate from complete falsehood to impossible fantasy.
Do continue.
 
Upvote 0

Standing Up

On and on
Sep 3, 2008
25,360
2,757
Around about
✟66,235.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private

Will you please do your homework and stop indulging in wishful thinking before you reply to my posts. Patience is one of my weaker virtues. :sigh:


PAX

:angel:
Besides scripture not identifying the three apostles as brothers, it also says
For neither did his brethren believe in him. (jn. 7:5)

So, it is impossible, unless one ignores scripture for man-made Tradition.
 
  • Like
Reactions: Rick Otto
Upvote 0

patricius79

Called to Jesus Through Mary
Sep 10, 2009
4,186
361
✟21,391.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
There is only one Church which is visible and hierarchical under Christ and his Vicar. There is no invisible Church comprised of countless denominations. There wasn't in the NT and the early Church, and there never will be. That's reality.


It wasn't God's finger that inscribed in stone in the 16th century for the first time ever that we are justified by faith alone. And ever since then sola Scriptura has done nothing but divide Christendom as individuals pick and choose what to believe, each one believing that the Holy Spirit is guiding them. But how can they know for sure who is right in their differences of opinion and belief? Jesus sent the Paraclete to guide his one visible and hierarchical Church and safeguard her from the gates of Hell (doctrinal error), not to individuals so that they may start their own church whose teachings are based on their unauthoritative private judgments.


What's absurd is your notion of God defiling Mary and Joseph's marriage by getting her pregnant in violation of His own moral law. We have to look at the PVM within a Judaic context. We read in Luke 1:35: "The power of the Most High shall overshadow you." Laying one's power over a woman (resuth) is a Hebrew euphemism for having conjugal relations. So is the word "overshadow" (to lay one's cloak (tellal) over a woman). So morally Joseph could not have normal marital relations with Mary. Their marriage would have become adulterous and thereby legally invalid according to the Divine law if they had conjugal relations and children of their own.

You are right. Our pride is so great and we want to decide for ourselves what the Bible means, rather than accepting the Word of God given through the One Historical Church founded by Jesus Christ to authoritatively interpret Scripture and Tradition (2 Thes 2:15).

Mary, the Perpetual Virgin, is truly the Spouse of the Holy Spirit. And indeed this idea of being the Spirit's Spouse is not even strong enough. They are so united that we can never understand it. And nobody can follow the Holy Spirit without being utterly devoted to Mary, at least implicitly.
 
Upvote 0

Rick Otto

The Dude Abides
Nov 19, 2002
34,112
7,406
On The Prairie
✟29,593.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
You are right. Our pride is so great and we want to decide for ourselves what the Bible means, rather than accepting the Word of God given through the One Historical Church founded by Jesus Christ to authoritatively interpret Scripture and Tradition (2 Thes 2:15).

Mary, the Perpetual Virgin, is truly the Spouse of the Holy Spirit. And indeed this idea of being the Spirit's Spouse is not even strong enough. They are so united that we can never understand it. And nobody can follow the Holy Spirit without being utterly devoted to Mary, at least implicitly.
I love that "One Historical Church" bit. The capitalization is especially convincing.
I am utterly devoted to truth, not swooning over what I can never understand.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

bbbbbbb

Well-Known Member
Jun 9, 2015
28,247
13,486
72
✟369,374.00
Faith
Non-Denom
You are right. Our pride is so great and we want to decide for ourselves what the Bible means, rather than accepting the Word of God given through the One Historical Church founded by Jesus Christ to authoritatively interpret Scripture and Tradition (2 Thes 2:15).

Mary, the Perpetual Virgin, is truly the Spouse of the Holy Spirit. And indeed this idea of being the Spirit's Spouse is not even strong enough. They are so united that we can never understand it. And nobody can follow the Holy Spirit without being utterly devoted to Mary, at least implicitly.

Okay, in heaven you believe that there is a King, Jesus, and a Queen, Mary. Now we have Mary's spouse, the Holy Spirit. Is the Holy Spirit the Prince Consort of the Queen, like Philip is to Queen Elizabeth II? That still leaves God, the Father, somewhere outside of the picture.
 
Upvote 0