- Apr 14, 2012
- 475
- 28
- Faith
- Christian
- Marital Status
- Single
My first question is concerning Matthew '5:1,2 which reads
"And seeing the multitudes, He went up on a mountain, and when He was seated His disciples came to Him. Then He opened His mouth and taught them, saying:"
I have an exegetical/hermeneutical-interpretation/application question about this that has several layers.
First it appears that in this particular form of Jesus' Sermon, His primary audience is His disciples. In Matthew's account in chapter 4:18-22, Jesus has at this point only "formally" called four people to be His disciples (Simon-Peter, Andrew, and the sons of Zebedee, James and John). Yet, as Jesus taught, preached, and healed, in Galilee, great multitudes "followed Him" (4:25).
So my first question is, Was Jesus addressing this particular sermon only to the four disciples He had formally called, a further group of disciples who Matthew chose not to mention (e.g. the twelve), a group of followers who were also present (who had been with them from the beginning -- e.g. Joseph and Matthias; Acts '1:21-26), or an even larger group of followers, possibly inclusive of the "great multitudes" who followed Him?
The reason why I ask this question is twofold:
First, Jesus uses the "You" word a lot in this sermon. In particular the plural form of "You", 'umeis.
If Jesus was only talking to the 4, or 12, or those who could "potentially become" apostles, His statements "You are the light of the world," "You are the salt of the earth" may be thought to only apply to a maximum of 14 people plus Paul.
So the first implication would then be that this sermon was in fact a training lecture directed to the 14.
The Second option is that Matthew has included this rendition of Jesus' teaching with the intention that Jesus was teaching all His disciples (ad infinitum- in terms of all people who would become His disciples 'through the ages' inclusive of us who follow Him today)
Yet is this second option actually viable?
The answer to this question may address our practice of internalizing God's Word as being addressed to us as His disciples, His people in Christ.
Or is it necessary to exegetically disconnect from this internalization, recognizing that some parts of this sermon are not directly applicable to us since some of His statements may be directed specifically to the "14"?
(I recognize that there were more people who were personally close to Jesus, who were also disciples, yet I have focused on the "14" as His "Lights of the world in training", to emphasize the distinction in understanding the question at issue toward one way or the other)
I hope this makes sense.
The simple way to ask this question is:
Does the Sermon on the Mount apply to all believers in its entirety or only to Jesus' immediate disciples in its entirety) who were present at the time?
"And seeing the multitudes, He went up on a mountain, and when He was seated His disciples came to Him. Then He opened His mouth and taught them, saying:"
I have an exegetical/hermeneutical-interpretation/application question about this that has several layers.
First it appears that in this particular form of Jesus' Sermon, His primary audience is His disciples. In Matthew's account in chapter 4:18-22, Jesus has at this point only "formally" called four people to be His disciples (Simon-Peter, Andrew, and the sons of Zebedee, James and John). Yet, as Jesus taught, preached, and healed, in Galilee, great multitudes "followed Him" (4:25).
So my first question is, Was Jesus addressing this particular sermon only to the four disciples He had formally called, a further group of disciples who Matthew chose not to mention (e.g. the twelve), a group of followers who were also present (who had been with them from the beginning -- e.g. Joseph and Matthias; Acts '1:21-26), or an even larger group of followers, possibly inclusive of the "great multitudes" who followed Him?
The reason why I ask this question is twofold:
First, Jesus uses the "You" word a lot in this sermon. In particular the plural form of "You", 'umeis.
If Jesus was only talking to the 4, or 12, or those who could "potentially become" apostles, His statements "You are the light of the world," "You are the salt of the earth" may be thought to only apply to a maximum of 14 people plus Paul.
So the first implication would then be that this sermon was in fact a training lecture directed to the 14.
The Second option is that Matthew has included this rendition of Jesus' teaching with the intention that Jesus was teaching all His disciples (ad infinitum- in terms of all people who would become His disciples 'through the ages' inclusive of us who follow Him today)
Yet is this second option actually viable?
The answer to this question may address our practice of internalizing God's Word as being addressed to us as His disciples, His people in Christ.
Or is it necessary to exegetically disconnect from this internalization, recognizing that some parts of this sermon are not directly applicable to us since some of His statements may be directed specifically to the "14"?
(I recognize that there were more people who were personally close to Jesus, who were also disciples, yet I have focused on the "14" as His "Lights of the world in training", to emphasize the distinction in understanding the question at issue toward one way or the other)
I hope this makes sense.
The simple way to ask this question is:
Does the Sermon on the Mount apply to all believers in its entirety or only to Jesus' immediate disciples in its entirety) who were present at the time?