I know God was Jesus' Father, but sin is not genetic and cannot be inherited;
When Adam and Eve sinned, they died spiritually as well as physical death set in. Thee was a change even in their nature death set into the very spirit and body. All who are born in Adam will die because of this change, even children. If a child had no sin they would not die then. But the wages of sin is death.
The verse I refer to is
"12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:"(Romans 5:12)
"18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation;..."(Romans 5:18)
and
"3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:"(Romans 8:3)
Here we see that Jesus came in the "
likeness of
sinful flesh". He was not in
"sinful flesh" but still fully human and he came in the flesh He is the second Adam. The angel called Jesus
"this holy thing". He was somehow different because he did not have a Human father. But still fully man.
And what do you see the words
"sin in the flesh" to mean?
otherwise Jesus would have inherited it from Mary, unless you are holding to the view that Mary was perfect.
No, Jesus did not have a human father and the blood apparently comes from the man. We see somewhat of this in verses where Adam as the head of woman is the one who is referred to.
"12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world"(Romans 5:12 KJV)
Notice
sin: singular, not
sins. This is not referring to actual transgressions and the multitudes of them. But
"sin in the singular is referring to the sin nature of man.
"For if through the offence of one many be dead"(Romans 5:15 KJV)
"18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation"( Romans 5:18)
"For as in Adam all die,"(1 Corinthians 15:22 KJV)
"19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous."(Romans 5:19 KJV)
We see here that sin entered into the world through Adam, not Eve, and this is clear from the above text. So, Adam as the Father of humanity so to speak, represents all who come from Him. We see a similar thing in hHebrews 7 when we read
"9 And as I may so say, Levi also, who receiveth tithes, payed tithes
in Abraham.
10 For he was yet in the loins of his father, when Melchisedec met him."(Hebrews 7:9,10 KJV)
This is a kind of headship, of the human family. If the first Adam represented all mankind in sin then the second Adam (Jesus Christ) can represent all mankind in righteousness. if all mankind did not fall in the first Adam and dead with him then all mankind could not be saved in the second Adam (Jesus Christ) This would give some weight that the sin nature was passed down through Adam or the man or the father. And since Jesus did not have a human biological father the sin nature was not passed own to him. Yet he came in the "LIKENESS of sinful flesh". The word Likeness is the key. Jesus had no sin. He had to be the spotless lamb in every way. Yet fully human and fully God.
We see in the verses I quoted above also that the first Adam failed and Jesus is the second Adam and he did not fail (1 Cor 15:45 KJV). All inherit this sinful or fallen nature from Adam. But the condemnation is by ONE man again Adam. And through that ONE man sin entered, and death and condemnation came upon all men and it is IN Adam that all die. What does to be in Adam mean?. By the ONE man Adam. So somehow through the man all die.Jesus did not have man as His father. Yet through Mary he connects to humanity.
Humans are by nature children of wrath.
"and were by nature the children of wrath, even as others."(Ephesians 2:3 KJV)
This was passed down somehow through Adam, and so all will have sin revive when they understand the law and Light in their being. And all will die one day because of it. If a child did not have a sin nature of a fallen corruptible flesh then they would not die. Paul says we are in a corruptible flesh in 1 Cor 15 I believe. This corruptible shall put on incorruptible. What does Paul mean by corruptable and where did all humans get this? From Adam is where we did.
When Adam sinned he was changed in his nature and physically, even inwardly in His spirit was dead. All human have this passed down to them as well. But it is in a kind of dormant state and only "revived" when the person knows to do good and when they have the commandment come to their mind and understanding (Romans 7:9, John 3).
It seems Adam was referred to as the reason for sin entering into the world. Adam did not sin merely as "a" man, but as "man" representing all mankind. And as far as Adam and Eve, the two become one flesh. So sin would have been passed upon all man by the one man Adam the father the male. But Jesus did not have a human father so he was not in the same sin nature.
And if you are saying that sinful nature is inherited through men, then as soon as scientists find a way to create sperm, that will be the end of sin; hello perfect world, goodbye Saviour.
Jesus was 100% human, but did not sin.
The expression, ""all have sinned") would appear to mean, not that all since Adam in their own persons committed sin ( and for this discussion we refer to children or infants or those in the womb), but that all
sinned in him or in Adam by connection to their head Adam.all are implicated in the sin of Adam
1 Corinthians 15:22, "in Adam all die;" and
2 Corinthians 5:14, where all are said to have died to sin in the death of Christ. So the contrary would be true to those in Christ.
This association with Adam is not only a "imputed" sin but an actual inheriting of a fallen nature and flesh and spiritual death also as well as physical. Sin infected all those who had not sinned after this similtude of Adams sin (Romans 5:14 KJV). It was worldwide and for all and all die because of The one mans sin even infants.
and another thought, (though I do not put strong weight on this as I need to examine the biology and facts )But If original sin is transmitted only through Adam and our fathers then this may be somehow connected to the blood. I would have to investigate if we have the blood of our mothers and if the ovum has that ability, or if it is through the sperm fertilising the egg that has the ability to produce blood. So Jesus could be sinless and not have a drop of blood from Adam in His veins. Yet still have the genetic material of man from the mother. So The angel says he is this holy thing. Otherwise why would Jesus not have a human father, why would God need to be His father. Couldn't God just come into a man and give him power and take over? No he had to be God manifest in the flesh fully God and fully man.
I read that "We also inherit our mitochondrial DNA, mtDNA, from our mother, and none from our father.". Again this is an interesting line of study. But I cannot speak of this with strength so it is just a thought.
Here are some other thoughts
"conception occurs when he female ovum is united with the male sperm. Only after fertilization does life and embryonic growth commence. Cardiovascular development occurs soon after fertilization. Without fertilization there could be no blood.Mary was unfertilized; meaning she didn't know a man in the biblical sense. She conceived the Son of God by the overshadowing of the Holy Spirit. The virgin birth produced a human being with sin-free blood that was not of Adamic origin.Yet, Christ did have blood, didn't He? Therefore some form of fertilization must have taken place. She was impregnated by the Word of God through the Holy Spirit!...As a baby develops in the womb, it is separated from the mother by the placenta. The mother's blood comes to the placenta, but stops there. It bathes the outside of the placenta, then through the process of osmosis, diffusion, and capillary attraction, the necessary nutrients and oxygen flow through the membrane that separates mother from child, and eventually pass into the baby's bloodstream through the umbilical cord. the infant's umbilical cord is attached to the placenta, not the mother. The mother's blood circulates on one side of the placenta. The baby's blood circulates on the other side.The baby's blood, which is a self-contained cardiovascular system, doesn't mingle with its mother's blood. It receives nutrition and oxygen indirectly from her blood, but does not receive her blood itself. In fact, the child's blood is often a completely different blood type than the mother's.
The significance of the virgin birth means that because Jesus was truly born of a virgin, there is only one place His blood could have come from, and it wasn't of this earth! He had His Father's blood!"
If that is so then Jesus had one as he was a child. And if having a sinful nature means that we sin - that it is our default position and we can't help it, then that would have been true for Jesus too.
No cloning would be sinful and against God anyway. Man should not tamper with creation or gentics such as that . And as I have been trying to show, Jesus did not have a sin nature he is unique he is the only begotten of the father.
Don't get me wrong, I'm not saying Jesus was a sinner; I'm saying that babies aren't either, and are not condemned if they die inside the womb or shortly after birth.
i am not saying babies are "sinners" in the sense that they actually transgress or commit actual sins. But i am saying that they inherited the sinful nature or sinful flesh and fall from Adam and death passed upon all men from Adam. But in the grace of Christ and the Light that lights every man ( and infant) that Light is the gift to man and the infants are in that Light and grace until they hate the light and until they have sin revive and they die. This will happen to all people, because of the fallen sin nature , They are by nature children of wrath. This fact that "sin will "revive", no matter what, shows that all are in a corruptible nature or flesh. This would mean as i have been saying that the sin nature is dormant until the law provokes it or until the law come s to their knowledge and understanding. Some have called this "the age of accountability", this is when they are now accountable to God. For to him that knoweth to do good and does it not to him it is sin
So therefore human flesh, human beings, are not sinful from the moment of birth.
I believe I have shown that they are in a sin nature, but have not actually sinned yet. So they have not transgressed a known law and there for sin is not imputed where there is no law, and where no law is there is no transgression and Paul said he was without the law once and alive ( spiritually) as all children are before sin revives. Notice the word "revives", you revive someone who was knocked out or in a passed out state etc. You cant revive a sin nature if it wasn't there already dormant.
Sin is wilful rebellion against God.
and sin is in the flesh as Romans 8 says and
"sin", not "
sins" willful or ignorant, entered into the world through one man Adam. This refers to the sin nature. And Christ died for the "sin" of the whole world. This is for the sin nature of all, and so when a child is born even in the womb they have sin in their nature and Christ died for them and so they are sin Christ and not condemned at this point.
I would say when a man sins or transgresses the truth and when he commits sins that is the willful part. But all have a sinful flesh and all were by NATURE children of wrath. Christ condemned "sin in the flesh" .
Adam knew full well that God had commanded him not to do a certain thing, and he did it anyway.
Yes, and so sin passed upon all men because of his act. And death came upon all men as well, physical and spiritual.