I was wondering if anyone knew of a statement of 'justification' that the Church felt justified in appointing women to exercise authority in the church or any articles or videos where people within the Church speak on the matter.
Thanks!
Thanks!
Do you have a specific definition of women in authority?I was wondering if anyone knew of a statement of 'justification' that the Church felt justified in appointing women to exercise authority in the church or any articles or videos where people within the Church speak on the matter.
Thanks!
Do you have a specific definition of women in authority?
I've always liked this discussion of Paul on this matter by Professor Bishop N. T Wright:Hi,
I just e-mailed the archives/record centre with the names of some reports produced by the church on the subject, hopefully sheds some light on it
Curious what their Scriptural basis is for allowing women Vicars, Bishops etc.
I've always liked this discussion of Paul on this matter by Professor Bishop N. T Wright:
http://ntwrightpage.com/Wright_Women_Service_Church.htm
All of the replies so far have been fruitful, I think. I especially like NT Wright's comments on women's ordination, however I'm not sure they actually answer the original question, which is essentially what was the justification presented by the Church (specifically the CoE) for women's ordination and the election of women as bishops.
Whenever I've discussed this, I've tended to use NT Wright's article, because I've never found a particularly satisfying argument coming from synods that have approved it. What did TEC/ACC say in the mid-70s? What was the argument presented in the 90s in the CoE? What argument carried the day with respect to Bishops over the past year? I doubt it was NT Wright's argument, and at least in Canada, I know a strong argument was about equality.
Whereas I completely agree that all decisions must have a theological justification, sometimes, though it is without question far less appealing, a decision like this may be based on a bad premise but the conclusion may still be true. After all, a false premise may still have a truth conclusion.
In all such cases, there had better be a quick theological justification to follow it up. Whims are a house of cards.
Conversely when we fail to provide a theological justification (like the ACC) then we can just as easily obscure or ignore God's truth. Ask an Anglican in Canada why we ordain women and they're just as likely to tell you that it's because Canadians believe in equality of the sexes. Effectively they're saying that secular opinion governed church doctrine. That should be a frightening prospect for anyone, and it certainly is for me.
It's something that in Canada has become more and more common. Same-sex marriage is the controversy du jour here, and it's no longer at all surprising how many people feel the sacrament of Holy Matrimony should be changed to allow for same-sex couples on the basis of the government having legalized same-sex marriage ten years ago, and the fact that more than 50% of the people view it as acceptable when polled. Regardless of your stance on the matter, surely you could see how it would be concerning that those positions have zero merit in determining how the Church is called to respond to God in faithfulness to his commandments and will?
Conversely when we fail to provide a theological justification (like the ACC) then we can just as easily obscure or ignore God's truth. Ask an Anglican in Canada why we ordain women and they're just as likely to tell you that it's because Canadians believe in equality of the sexes. Effectively they're saying that secular opinion governed church doctrine. That should be a frightening prospect for anyone, and it certainly is for me.
That is not a secular opinion at all. It is Christianity itself which leads by example in demonstrating equality for male and female, slave and free, Jew and gentile.
Canada may well believe it too, but Christianity takes the lead on this one, not the state.
That's just it -- I am trying to find the meat. I want the theological justification. I want their reasoning. I don't want generic, moralistic opinions by people going with the flow, I want to try and understand what information and discussions lead up to the decision.
Apparently difficult to find!
I put a request in for the reports with the Church of England Archives/Record Centre, so I will just have to see if they have a PDF scanning of those reports or not. If not I guess I'll go there and photocopy them if they're available to do so, which they should be.
I find the discussion interesting. I have no pony in this race, but I'd like to know why Jesus didn't "ordain" any women? Surely Jesus wasn't held captive by social prejudices and the pressures to make chauvinists happy? Surely if the Lord felt women fully called and allowed to be priests, He'd have done so, right?
The Fathers are illumined, so why would the Holy Spirit withhold women's ordination from them and permit them to be encircled my misogyny?
I often hear the "branch" theory. If Anglicanism, along with Holy Orthodoxy and Catholicism are three branches of Gods church, why is it only the Anglicans allowing this when the Orthodox and Catholics absolutely forbid it? The Orthodox were cozying up to Anglicans until WO. After that all bets were off. Is Anglicanism to be an example for these other two who just don't get it and are behind in the times or the reverse? Is the Orthodox and Catholic view worth considering as the other two branches?
When Paul was talking about how in Christ there is no Jew, Greek, Scythian, etc. was he talking about authority in the Church and Holy a Orders or was he speaking to the problem of some Jews seeing Gentiles as inferior, the need to show all races and groups could be BAPTIZED and valid members of the same church, etc.? Is the passage about God loving us all equally or God calling everyone to ministry? Can we all be equally loved and worth being saved yet not all called to the same authoritative offices?
Do the patristics matter in their condemnation of gnostic use of women priests?
Precedent, Scripture, Jesus's choices, the Fathers, 2,000 of consistency, the other two branches, all point against it. Only modern culture points in the other direction. I'd it social justice secularism influencing or the patristics and Scripture and precedent? Just wondering....
You can write any number of impressive essays about ECF, but there is no denying that God has blessed the church richly via women's ministry. Think about that.
There have been many strong women throughout bible times, and without a modern concept of ordination, who's to say where women really fitted in? Paul wrote very much within his culture, and his letters addressed specific cultures of the recipient churches.
Our duty is to preach the gospel afresh in each generation.
My fellowship, with our first ever woman curate, equips us to be the hands and feet of Jesus in our local community enabling us to transform lives. I can't imagine any of the ECFs looking down on us and disapproving.
That is not a secular opinion at all. It is Christianity itself which leads by example in demonstrating equality for male and female, slave and free, Jew and gentile.
Canada may well believe it too, but Christianity takes the lead on this one, not the state.
There's a difference between inequality and contradicting gender roles within the church, though, and that's where I feel the issue lies.
Perhaps my point wasn't clear, but the argument was that secular Canadian society believed in gender equality, not that it was supported by Christ or by Scriptures, Church tradition, etc. The argument ignored any of the effective Christian arguments noted in the previously cited article by NT Wright.
As PaladinValer said, sometimes these arguments can still hold truth, but in effect we are then saying the ends (that it is a Christian position to arrive at) justify the means (using a secular, non-Christian argument). If these positions can be reached using Christian positions (and barring the catholicity issue, I believe they can be, again see Bishop Wright's article rooted in Scripture and tradition), then why are we not using the Christian arguments rather than the secular arguments? How long will it take before we're simply used to accepting the legitimacy of secular arguments informing Church doctrine?
Given the debates occurring in Canada right now, many Canadian Anglicans are perfectly comfortable basing their views on what the position of the Anglican Church of Canada should be 100% on secular arguments and values without any reference to God, the Bible, the Church, etc.