Standing Up
On and on
It probably would have been easier and more agreeable had they stuck to scripture terminology. Mother of my Lord (Lk 1:43).
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Interesting. Most EO argue for the brother explanation from the Protoevangelium of James (brothers from Joseph/ previous wife), rather than for Jerome's cousin theory.Second, if we examine more closely the example of James, one of these four "brothers of the Lord" mentioned in Matthew 13:55, we discover him to be a cousin or some other relative of Jesus rather than a uterine brother. For example, Galatians 1:18-19 informs us: "Then after three years I [Paul] went up to Jerusalem to visit Cephas, and remained with him fifteen days. But I saw none of the other apostles except James the Lord’s brother."
Notice, the "James" of whom Paul was speaking was both a "brother of the Lord" and an "apostle." There are two apostles named James among the 12. The first James is revealed to be a "son of Zebedee." He most likely would not be the "James" referred to because according to Acts 12:1-2 he was martyred very early on. Even if it was him, his father was named Zebedee, not Joseph.
Paul more likely is referring to the second James who was an apostle, according to Luke 6:15-16. This James is revealed to have a father named Alphaeus, not Joseph. Thus, James the apostle and Jesus were not uterine brothers. Easy enough. Some will argue, however, that this "James" was not an apostle or that he was not one of the original 12. Though this is a possibility—others in the New Testament, such as Barnabas in Acts 14, are referred to as "apostles" in a looser sense—the argument from Scripture is weak. When Paul wrote about going "up to Jerusalem" to see Peter, he was writing about an event that occurred many years earlier, shortly after he had converted. He was basically going up to the apostles to receive approval lest he "should be running or had run in vain." It would be more likely he would have here been speaking about "apostles" (proper), or "the twelve."
You mean 'sola scriptura' is the means? But since 'mother of God' is not sola scriptura , what is it based on? Maybe a better way to put it would be, no matter the means of coming to the conclusion, what do you disagree with the OP on?
I'm really trying to understand this...
This is the point made by the same OP author that most forcibly makes his case...
If all the Protestants follow the "Sola Scriptura" doctrine wouldn't all of them worship on Saturday, like Seventh-Day-Adventists? After all, worshipping on Sunday it's a part of christian tradition and the Bible clearly states that the seventh day of the week (Saturday, as counting like in the OT) is the day of rest, used to worship God.
One is forced to argue that case sola-conciliar-decision -- that one is impossible to escape for Protestants.
================================
Leo Trese -
(from "The Faith Explained" page 243 .))
" we know that in the O.T it was the seventh day of the week - the Sabbath day - which was observed as the Lord's day. that was the law as God gave it...'remember to keep holy the Sabbath day.. the early Christian church determined as the Lord's day the first day of the week.
The reason for changing the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday lies in the fact that to the Christian church the first day of the week had been made double holy...
nothing is said in the bible about the change of the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday. .that is why we find so illogical the attitude of many non-Catholic who say they will believe nothing unless they can find it in the bible and yet will continue to keep Sunday as the Lord's day on the say-so of the Catholic church"
but you do not accept the decisions of the 7th Ecumenical Council (Regarding the acceptance, the theology and the use of the Holy Icons)?
And "then" the OP question becomes a bit more difficult to answer.
Miami Ted and I have explained this several times, so I'd refer you to those posts.
Wryetui said: ↑
but you do not accept the decisions of the 7th Ecumenical Council (Regarding the acceptance, the theology and the use of the Holy Icons)?
Nestorius tried that (actually mother of Christ), and was considered a heretic.It probably would have been easier and more agreeable had they stuck to scripture terminology. Mother of my Lord (Lk 1:43).
It probably would have been easier and more agreeable had they stuck to scripture terminology. Mother of my Lord (Lk 1:43).
Nestorius tried that (actually mother of Christ), and was considered a heretic.
Well ... nobody said that sticking with "scripture" would always be popular.
... as for myself I don't accept any "decisions" by any Ecumenical Council, but only what the scriptures say. We are not bow down to idols, statues of people or communicate with the dead, which is a form of witchcraft called Necromancy.
Necromancy /ˈnɛkrɵˌmænsi/ or nigromancy is a form of magic involving communication with the deceased – either by summoning their spirit as an apparition or raising them bodily – for the purpose of divination, imparting the means to foretell future events or discover hidden knowledge, or to use the deceased as a weapon, as the term may sometimes be used in a more general sense to refer to black magic or witchcraft.
There shall not be found among you anyone who makes his son or his daughter pass through the fire, or one who practices witchcraft, or a soothsayer, or one who interprets omens, or a sorcerer. Deuteronomy 18:10
..
JLB
I prefer to stick with the interpretation of the Church from the beginning and the Saints,
the interpretation of the Church didn't change so even if I respect your opinion (altough I find it insulting to the Most Holy Theotokos),
here is what I believe and what the Church believes:
First, we must understand that the term brother has a wide semantic range in Scripture. It can mean a uterine brother, an extended relative, or even a spiritual brother. In Genesis 13:8 and 14:12, we read of one example of brother being used to describe an extended relationship: Abraham and Lot.
That regarging Mary, now regarding Holy Icons and their supposed "idolatry":
The scriptures tell us that Jesus Christ is the image or “form” of God (εἰκὼν τοῦ θεοῦ): “He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation” (Col. 1:15). While the Father and Spirit are both formless and invisible (1 Tim. 1:17; Heb. 11:27; 1 John 4:20), the ὑπόστασις or person of the Son is revealed to us in the God-Man Jesus Christ: “No one has ever seen God; the only Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known” (John 1:18).
God “became flesh and dwelt among us” (John 1:14), as the prophetic Emmanuel indicates (Matt. 1:23). When we look at Christ, we see the Father, and Jesus Christ is the “exact counterpart of [the Father’s] person” (Heb. 1:3). This word translated by the EOB as “counterpart” is χαρακτὴρ, implying something like an image stamped into a wax seal.
Similarly, when we pay honor to the image of the Son of God in icons, we are paying honor to the prototype—to Jesus Christ himself. And when we honor the Saints, we are honoring the God whose uncreated light shines through their halos.
Calvin’s arguments on this point seemingly presuppose that the Incarnation never happened;
The issue with respect to the 2nd commandment is what does the word translated "graven images" mean? If it simply means carved images, then the images in the temple would be in violation of this Commandment. Our best guide, however, to what Hebrew words mean, is what they meant to Hebrews—and when the Hebrews translated the Bible into Greek, they translated this word simply as "eidoloi", i.e. "idols." Furthermore the Hebrew word pesel is never used in reference to any of the images in the temple. So clearly the reference here is to pagan images rather than images in general.Ex 20
4 Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth.
5 Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them: for I the Lord thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me
You might want to think carefully about this one. Today there’s lots of criticism of “liberals” who want to qualify the statement that Jesus is God. The majority thought exactly the same of Nestorius. In refusing to say that Mary was the mother of God, Nestorius seemed to them to be suggesting that there was some distinction between God and Jesus.
I find it ironic that many of the people who are most insistent that we must say Jesus is God are most likely to be unsympathetic with saying that Mary is the mother of God.
Personally, I would prefer to say that Jesus is the incarnation of God, because to me “Jesus” refers specifically to the human existence of Christ. But it’s precisely this kind of distinction that got Nestorius in trouble.
The issue with respect to the 2nd commandment is what does the word translated "graven images" mean? If it simply means carved images, then the images in the temple would be in violation
Orthodox Christians do not worship Icons in the sense that the word "worship" is commonly used in modern English. In older translations (and in some more recent translations in which the translators insist on using this word in its original sense), one finds the word "worship" used to translate the Greek word proskyneo (literally, "to bow"). Nevertheless, one must understand that the older use of "worship" in English was much broader than it is generally used today, and was often used to refer simply to the act of honoring, venerating, or reverencing. For example, in the old book of common prayer, one of the wedding vows was "with my body I thee worship," but this was never intended to imply that the bride would worship her husband in the sense in which "worship" is commonly used now.Ex 20
4 Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth.
5 Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them: for I the Lord thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me;
IF they "bow down" to those images.. if they "Serve them" .. then you are right they would be in violation of Ex 20.
They never do that in the Temple.
in Christ,
Bob
Wryetui said: ↑
If all the Protestants follow the "Sola Scriptura" doctrine wouldn't all of them worship on Saturday, like Seventh-Day-Adventists?
After all, worshipping on Sunday it's a part of christian tradition and the Bible clearly states
Of course not. Not when the NT states that the church decided to worship on the Lord's Day instead and that we, as believers in Christ, are now freed from "days" and "meats" and other such legalisms that meant something in the era before Christ. To be Sola Scriptura almost requires one to worship on Sunday like everyone else.
No, it's not (tradition)...and the Bible clearly states that the early church chose the first day of the week and had the right to do so. All that owes to Scripture, not Tradition.
So there is the "Sola Scriptura" claim for that POV - it is not quoting a church council - but rather claiming that the Bible itself states somewhere that the NT church called week-day-1 "The Lord's Day" and states that the NT text says somewhere that weekly worship services would from the time of the cross onward be held on week-day-1 and not on the Sabbath.
I see that you are not quoting any church council as the "proof" or basis for that claim. So then that is a "sola scriptura" doctrinal position claiming that it stands or falls based on what the text of scripture says on the point.
Right.
Yes, according to Scripture, the church made the first day of the week the principle day of worship and had the right to do so because of Paul's epistles about Christians being under Grace and not under the OT ritualistic regulations any more.
That's right. You seem disappointed.
Miami Ted and I have explained this several times, so I'd refer you to those posts.
That's your claim, not mine, even though you've tried repeatedly to attribute it to me.So there is the "Sola Scriptura" claim for that POV - it is not quoting a church council - but rather claiming that the Bible itself states somewhere that the NT church called week-day-1 "The Lord's Day"
What took you so long to notice that?I see that you are not quoting any church council as the "proof" or basis for that claim.
Orthodox Christians do not worship Icons in the sense that the word "worship" is commonly used in modern English.
That's your claim, not mine, even though you've tried repeatedly to attribute it to me.
What took you so long to notice that?
It doesn't say there what you alleged.
I do take my guidance from scripture alone, but you keep attributing contrary comments to me. I'd appreciate it if you would stop doing that. If you want to question anything I have written, quote it exactly as written.I keep saying that your claim is that your two salient points come from sola-scriptura source - and not church tradition
It doesn't say there what you alleged.
.
I do take my guidance from scripture alone,
but you keep attributing contrary comments to me. I'd appreciate it if you would stop doing that. If you want to question anything I have written, quote it exactly as written.
Orthodox Christians do venerate Icons, which is to say, we pay respect to them because they are holy objects, and because we reverence what the Icons depict. We do not worship Icons any more than Americans worship the American flag. Saluting the flag is not exactly the same type of veneration as we pay to Icons, but it is indeed a type of veneration. And just as we do not venerate wood and paint, but rather the persons depicted in the Icon, patriotic Americans do not venerate cloth and dye, but rather the country which the flag represents.
Yes that's true. The definition of the council was really not from scripture at all and as was mentioned earlier in the thread the only correct defination from scripture would refer to Mary mother of Jesus, excluding Him as Christ, the Risen Lord.It is true that among the other things not in the Bible - "Theotokos" is also not in the Bible.
So this becomes yet another instance where the "Sola Scriptura" model of testing all doctrine would come in.
in Christ,
Bob