2. When the bible says there is no male or female in Christ this is in regards to obtaining salvation. Both man and women are heirs to the grace of life. 1peter 3:7, Gal 3:28. One could argue if there is neither male or female in Christ a man could marry a man and it would be ok because the are not really a male or female. Again this is simply stating the equality we have in obtaining salvation.
So why does this equality not go out to the gifts of the Spirit? If they are seen the same in Christ, as you argue, why stop at salvation?
3,4. Indeed women did prophesy in the NT as Philip 4 daughters did acts 21:9. But Paul limited how women were to teach or prophesy in 1 Timothy 2:12 And I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man, but to be in silence. So a women cannot teach a man in way where she would assume authority over him.
Okay - next passage.
I maintain that this passage in I Timothy moves from speaking to and about different groups. I Timothy 2:1-7 speaks to all believes. Verse 8 is for the men. 8-10 are to the women. 11-15a is to a woman (note the change from the plural to the singular), and 15b goes back to the plural, so it is meant for all the women.
First, we have to understand what the previous words says. Ephesus was a moral wasteland. The church was in serious trouble. Paul says that this was a time of great opportunity - a time to pray. He gives them four different words for prayer in verse 2:2. No one is excuded from making such prayers. Of interest is Paul's use of the word for quiet - "hesuchios" which we will see again. Paul urged prayer not just so that believers could live peacable lives, but becayse they should feel what God feels and want what He wants.
Next thing to note: Paul uses the word anthropos (the gender-inclusive word meaning "person" or "human" for the first seven verses. As someone who I assume is an Arminian, I am sure Cougan would agree that God wants all people to be saved - this is the core of the gospel message.
In verse 8, Timothy uses aner, so this is specific. They were to pray without anger or disputing.
The next two verses deal with the entire woman population: Paul wanted them to dress modestly, with decency and propriaty, but with good deeds. (This brings up the question - do people wear jewelry in your church? Is this not wrong according to this passage?) He connects the two sentences with the word "likewise" (hosautos ), showing not that they are different, but that they are the same. Paul wanted both of them to pray and live lives that were separate from the rest of the culture.
Next, we come to the passage in question. Paul specifically states this:
The woman should learn in quietness and full submission. I do not permit the woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be silent. For Adam was formed first, then Eve. And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner. But she will be saved through childbearing--if they continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety.
Note that verse 15, especially says "she" and not "they!" The context suggests strongly that Paul had a certain person in mind! Paul did this in Titus as well - calls out an unnamed person causing dissention.
In fact, reading the passage, we do not see any command of this being applied to all women - only this one, singular woman, who was spreading heresy in the church!
Certainly women may teach (***. 2:3-5); they may, in certain ways, even teach men. There is a reciprocal teaching in singing (Col. 3:16), and privately, in conjunction with her husband, Priscilla was involved in teaching Apollos (Acts 18:26). But a woman may not assume the position of teacher, with the man subordinated to the role of student, without violating a New Testament command.
And with the assumption that I Timothy 2 taken out of the running, we can see that women most certainly can assume the position of teacher, just as Priscilla did with Apollos.
5. The word diakonos simply means a servant (Matt. 23:11; Jon. 2:5, etc.), and any official attachment to the term must be demanded by the context, as in Philippians 1:1 and 1 Timothy 3:8.12
Paul uses diakonos only when referring to deacons, specifically. He counts himself as a deacon in Philippians 1:1, and the Timothy passage specifically refers to the position of deacon. Nevertheless, the same word is used as the other times Paul refers to deacons and ministers.
The fact that the saints were encouraged to assist Phoebe did not imply her authority over them. The Greek word paristerni meant to come to the aid of, help, stand by. When Paul said, the Lord stood by (pareste) me (2 Tim. 4:17), he certainly was not asserting that he exercised authority over Christ!
No, the Lord exercised authority of Paul. It's clear in II Timothy 4:17 - in the same way Phoebe did the same for her church.
The word prostatis (helper) does not necessitate oversight. If so, then Phoebe exercised authority over Paul, for she had been his helper as well as others!
Prostasis is only mentioned once in the NT - "Helper" is much to weak for the translation - "Servant-leader" comes closer, but there is not a strong enough equivalent in our language. In contemporary literaure, prostasis is used to describe the nobest, most gracious, and benefical rulers. Emporers, kinds, ogvernors, and other officials were also referred to by this word. Only one person is called this high name - Phoebe, who influenced even Paul with her leadership.
Besides all this just like elders deacons are to be husbands of 1 wife titus 2:12. A woman can not be a husband of one wife.
I am going to assume that you are referring to Timothy 3:1-2. The important part to read are the first few words. "If anyone" desires. He does not specifically say "man" with the word aner, as he does all throughout his letter. Thus, we can conclude that Paul is referring to if any man or woman desires the office of a bishop, correct? I would also maintain that we understand that the next verse be understood to prevent bishops from having more than one wife. Consider all of the single and widowed ministers in the church. Should they be unallowed to minister, due to their being single? Common sense, and plain reading, show that women are not being excluded in this case. Same for the passage in Titus 1.
It is said that Junia (KJV), a woman, was an apostle and thus certainly occupied a place of authority in the primitive church (Rom. 16:7).
In the first place, in the Greek text the name is Junian (in the accusative case the gender of the name not evident); it could either be Junia (feminine), or more likely, Junias (masculine). Origin, a writer of the third century A.D., considered it a reference to a man.
But secondly, it is not even certain that Junias is here identified as an apostle. The phrase of note among the apostles (ASV) is rendered by Zahn as "famed, mentioned with honor in the circle of the apostles", giving the sense of being well known by the apostles, rather than actually being an apostle.
In the third place, the word apostle is used occasionally in the Bible in a nontechnical sense to denote a messenger. Jesus says that one sent (apostolos) is not greater than the sender (Jno. 13:16). The word need not imply one who has dominion over another, nor even a preacher.
See the above quotes I used before. There is no record in any literature that Junias was a male's name. None at all! While there are a multitide of Junia's. Therefore - we must conclude that Junia was a woman. A good summary of the ancient literature is
http://www.womenpriests.org/classic/brooten.htm - Another interesting Origen quote: "This text (1 Tim 3:11) teaches with the authority of the apostle that even women are instituted deacons in the church." (Swidler, p.310).
7. Do you not realize that in 2John 1:1 that the elder mentioned there is the writer of the letter? It is not calling the lady the elder.
Verse 4, I rejoiced greatly that I found of thy children walking in truth, as we have received a commandment from the Father. - John commens her "children." Verse 5, "And now I beseech thee, lady, not as though I wrote a new commandment unto thee, but that which we had from the beginning, that we love one another." Can we not see that she was indeed an elder of the church. (I agree that in verse 1, John calls himself an "elder," but the remainder of the book shows that the woman was the head of the church, or at least one of the leaders.)
