Notrash
Senior Member
Well, that's ok for now. We have agreement on Det 31:29 and dan 10:14 revering to the same latter days. That's in agreement.
What's in disagreement is what those latter days referred to.
As mentioned before, I don't think the spirit and intent of the mention of an increase in k.owledge is intended to read as a defining characteristic to qualify when "the time if the end" occurs. It's too subjective, general and passive of a statement. If that were the intent it would read; The time of the end will occur when means of transportation and methods if communicating knowledge, as well as that knowledge will far exceed what we kniw of today; refering to daniels day.
It reads as if its part of a stanza in a poem and mrant to reiterate or support the idea that it will not come in Daniels lifetime or in the next few generations, but after some time has psssed. The difference between this perspective of those words and your perspective is the difference between hearing/reading the priphecies as poetry (which most are) versus reading them as an english secret code and literal, dictated words to be decoded. The first is what I believe is following the spirit or intent of the prophecy and to the time period of their original audience versus seeking the LETTER of the prophecy. Paul talks of thus error in 2 cor 3.
So, if the latter days of deut 31:29 could be shown and proven to refer to the latter days of the temlorary mosaic covt period and their "latter dnds" of deut 32:20,29, then we could agree and would have to agree that the "time if the end" would also have to refer to the previosly mentioned "time of the end if the mosaic covenant, wouldn't we??
I believe and am confident from the context of moses speech of the book of deuteronomy made to the people from mt nebo just before crossing Jordan, and from the context of Daniels prayer in ch 9 and its and the captivities relation to that speech, that the "latter days" of deut 31:29 & 32:20,29 referred to thae latfer days of the mosaic covt and its people after the new covt and Shiloh (gen 49:1) arrived.
In the same way, if you coul PROVE that the casual mentioning of the increase of knowledge and travel was supposed to be i.tended as an absolute time indicator for the fulfilling of the "time of the end" then I woukd also have to concede tbat the latter days referred and were ONLY applicable to the time parameters when travel and knowledge would increase. Wouldn't I??
It's almost the same subjectivity that's applied to Jesus saying that "this generation won't pass till all those things wrre fulfilled. Objectively speaki.g, he was reiterating that all those things would occur within the next 40 yrs. Subjectively, If ee don't understand how they were fulfilled we can change the spirit and intent of thise words by focusing on this detail or that detail.
What's in disagreement is what those latter days referred to.
As mentioned before, I don't think the spirit and intent of the mention of an increase in k.owledge is intended to read as a defining characteristic to qualify when "the time if the end" occurs. It's too subjective, general and passive of a statement. If that were the intent it would read; The time of the end will occur when means of transportation and methods if communicating knowledge, as well as that knowledge will far exceed what we kniw of today; refering to daniels day.
It reads as if its part of a stanza in a poem and mrant to reiterate or support the idea that it will not come in Daniels lifetime or in the next few generations, but after some time has psssed. The difference between this perspective of those words and your perspective is the difference between hearing/reading the priphecies as poetry (which most are) versus reading them as an english secret code and literal, dictated words to be decoded. The first is what I believe is following the spirit or intent of the prophecy and to the time period of their original audience versus seeking the LETTER of the prophecy. Paul talks of thus error in 2 cor 3.
So, if the latter days of deut 31:29 could be shown and proven to refer to the latter days of the temlorary mosaic covt period and their "latter dnds" of deut 32:20,29, then we could agree and would have to agree that the "time if the end" would also have to refer to the previosly mentioned "time of the end if the mosaic covenant, wouldn't we??
I believe and am confident from the context of moses speech of the book of deuteronomy made to the people from mt nebo just before crossing Jordan, and from the context of Daniels prayer in ch 9 and its and the captivities relation to that speech, that the "latter days" of deut 31:29 & 32:20,29 referred to thae latfer days of the mosaic covt and its people after the new covt and Shiloh (gen 49:1) arrived.
In the same way, if you coul PROVE that the casual mentioning of the increase of knowledge and travel was supposed to be i.tended as an absolute time indicator for the fulfilling of the "time of the end" then I woukd also have to concede tbat the latter days referred and were ONLY applicable to the time parameters when travel and knowledge would increase. Wouldn't I??
It's almost the same subjectivity that's applied to Jesus saying that "this generation won't pass till all those things wrre fulfilled. Objectively speaki.g, he was reiterating that all those things would occur within the next 40 yrs. Subjectively, If ee don't understand how they were fulfilled we can change the spirit and intent of thise words by focusing on this detail or that detail.
Last edited:
Upvote
0