Biblical Definition of adultery

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annier

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Strictly speaking biblically, a single woman can have sex with either a married or unmarried man - or, reverse that - a married or unmarried man can have sex with a single woman - without committing adultery because adultery only happens when a husband's exclusive sexual rights to his wife are broken. So also, a male can be married to 100 women, have sex with them all, then go out and have sex with 100 unmarried women, and not commit adultery. But if he has sex with 1 woman married to someone else, he commits adultery.
Fornication is forbidden either sex.
 
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sunlover1

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Hate to say it but this also seems to be the source of Paul's terminology: "Or do you not know that he who is joined to a harlot is one body with her? For 'the two,' He says, 'shall become one flesh.'” (1 Cr 6:16)
The plot thickens
 
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Nanopants

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I think, sometimes, we all have a tendency to follow after Bill Clinton's evasive thinking, in that if we feel we can fool people, we can probably fool God, too.

I think some genuinely want instruction, and to understand, apart from the constraint of "erring on the side of caution." Who ever made up that rule anyways? I fail to see what's so cautious about intentional error.
 
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PreachersWife2004

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:thumbsup:

The modern church's traditions about marriage is not what Scripture says it should be.

For example, most of the modern church would demand that a couple receive a license from the state before being married by an officiant (representative of the state). On the other hand, Scripture does not 1. require state licenses, 2. or officiants. It seems to merely require consent.

It is the law that requires the license, and the bible tells us to respect the law.

The modern church deems couples sleeping together "before marriage" to be a morally gray area - frowned upon as fornication, but is not considered adultery. Scripture, on the other hand, says that, if you're a woman, the first man you sleep with is basically your husband, and all who you sleep with after that are actually committing adultery with you against your "first partner". If you're a man, the first woman you sleep with is basically your wife, and all whom you sleep with after that are additional wives or concubines which you are obligated to support.

I agree that the "modern" church view it as a gray area.

Most don't, though.

My husband is not the first man I had sex with. My first husband was not the first man I had sex with. The first man I had sex with is not my husband.

I am only married to one man, and he's the one that counts. The sin I first committed when I was 19 has long been forgiven. We are not committing adultery in any way.

So, I agree with you ... once you live and sleep with someone, you are, for all practical purposes, married in God's eyes.

You added the "live with". Why?
 
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bling

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Ezekiel 23:37 For they have committed adultery, and blood is upon their hands; with their idols they have committed adultery; and they have even offered up to them for food the sons whom they had borne to me.

Ezekiel 23:43 “Then I said, Do not men now commit adultery when they practice harlotry with her?

Jeremiah 3:8 She saw that for all the adulteries of that faithless one, Israel, I had sent her away with a decree of divorce; yet her false sister Judah did not fear, but she too went and played the harlot.

Jeremiah 9:2 O that I had in the desert a wayfarers’ lodging place, that I might leave my people and go away from them! For they are all adulterers, a company of treacherous men.

Hosea 7:4 They are all adulterers; they are like a heated oven, whose baker ceases to stir the fire, from the kneading of the dough until it is leavened.

Matthew 16:4 An evil and adulterous generation seeks for a sign, but no sign shall be given to it except the sign of Jonah.” So he left them and departed.

Some will try to separate “spiritual adultery” from “physical sexual adultery”, but I do not see the Bible making a distinction so the punishment would be the same.

To incorporate all the times and ways “adultery” is used in both the OT and NT, I would suggest it means: Any involvement in the damaging of a covenant relationship which can be between God and man or man and woman is adultery.
 
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Nanopants

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You either love your wife, or you just selfishly want to let "Little Willie" go out and play. You can try to fabricate all the word games with it you want, but you have no way out of facing the truth.

Ok, let's say the prevailing teaching in the Church is that all sex, even within marriage is evil. In that case, your words here would appear to support the error by opposing any questions by labeling them as being selfishly and sexually motivated.

At what point should it be permissible to question what we are being taught and to want to know the truth? Answer: it has always been, and always will be permissible, else we would be required to adopt, obey and never question error.
 
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annier

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I think some genuinely want instruction, and to understand,
Indeed! In looking into multiple wives allowed men an interesting society develops. One much more preferable to that we find today IMO.
Men were only to marry as they were able to sustain financially a wife. Therefore the more wealth a man gained, the larger his household could become. I liken this as socialism which is structured upon genealogy. Rather than modern notions of taking wealth away from men to support the needs of thosewhich have children they cannot or wil not take care of.
Today we have men having many children by different women which cannot even support themselves let alone a wife and Children. Then we have men (and women) which seek wealth to gain raw power, or for lavish live styles for themselves and their children. Marriage and children has lost it' original implications of worth as a Joyous blessing, and or privilege. Money has also lost it's original value as the source whereby one takes the ability to have the blessing of Marriage and Children. A far cry better than what we see today concening marriage and children in all levels of our society. Just my opinion of course.
 
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Kristos

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Hate to say it but this also seems to be the source of Paul's terminology: "Or do you not know that he who is joined to a harlot is one body with her? For 'the two,' He says, 'shall become one flesh.'” (1 Cr 6:16)

It all has meaning if you let it sink in;)
 
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ananda

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It is the law that requires the license, and the bible tells us to respect the law.
Civil statutes require their license to create their civil union or civil "marriage" (aka forming a corporation comprised of partners). God's Law has different requirements to form a Scriptural marriage.

Civil unions <> Scriptural marriage :) To Caesar belongs "civil unions". To God belongs Scriptural marriage.

Getting a civil union is not the same as being Scripturally married. One can be Scripturally married without obtaining a civil union. One can be civilly united without being Scripturally married also.

Most modern churches actually belong to Caesar, and not to God.

I agree that the "modern" church view it as a gray area. Most don't, though. My husband is not the first man I had sex with. My first husband was not the first man I had sex with. The first man I had sex with is not my husband. I am only married to one man, and he's the one that counts. The sin I first committed when I was 19 has long been forgiven. We are not committing adultery in any way. You added the "live with". Why?
"Living with" points to uniting oneself into the House of another for joint purposes.
 
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Willie T

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Ok, let's say the prevailing teaching in the Church is that all sex, even within marriage is evil. In that case, your words here would appear to support the error by opposing any questions by labeling them as being selfishly and sexually motivated.

At what point should it be permissible to question what we are being taught and to want to know the truth? Answer: it has always been, and always will be permissible, else we would be required to adopt, obey and never question error.
Just the foolishness of that phrase precludes any rational discussion.
 
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Nanopants

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Just the foolishness of that phrase precludes any rational discussion.

Right, well, fortunately agreement with you and your vocabulary is not required for a rational discussion. And my hypothetical scenario is not without precedent:

Now the Spirit expressly says that in latter times some will depart from the faith, giving heed to deceiving spirits and doctrines of demons, speaking lies in hypocrisy, having their own conscience seared with a hot iron, forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from foods which God created to be received with thanksgiving by those who believe and know the truth. -1 Tim 1:4-3
 
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PreachersWife2004

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Civil statutes require their license to create their civil union or civil "marriage" (aka forming a corporation comprised of partners). God's Law has different requirements to form a Scriptural marriage.

Civil unions <> Scriptural marriage :) To Caesar belongs "civil unions". To God belongs Scriptural marriage.

I'm not talking about civil unions. I'm not united in a civil union, I'm married. Before our pastor would conduct the marriage, we had to get a license from the county, because that is what the law requires.

I've never bought into the idea that two people could just look at each other and decide "well, we're married in the eyes of God now" and be done with it.

"Living with" points to uniting oneself into the House of another for joint purposes.

err...what? That still doesn't answer my question. Why not just keep it at "having sex with someone unites them in marriage before God's eyes"?
 
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PreachersWife2004

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To incorporate all the times and ways “adultery” is used in both the OT and NT, I would suggest it means: Any involvement in the damaging of a covenant relationship which can be between God and man or man and woman is adultery.

During my divorce from my first husband, my pastor and I had a good number of discussions on adultery and what it meant to adulterate the marriage bed. Your summary is a pretty good one. Adultery doesn't necessarily have to be sexual in nature.
 
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ananda

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I'm not talking about civil unions. I'm not united in a civil union, I'm married. Before our pastor would conduct the marriage, we had to get a license from the county, because that is what the law requires. I've never bought into the idea that two people could just look at each other and decide "well, we're married in the eyes of God now" and be done with it.
No, civil law requires a license to create a corporation which they've called "marriage". Just because they created something called "marriage" does not make it the same "marriage" which conforms to Scripture.

Civil "marriage" is merely forming a corporation, but under a different guise. When you obtained permission from civil law to get "married", you and your partner-husband petitioned the state to form a corporation under the rules and regulation of the state. They approved of the formation of that corporation by issuing you a license, with you and him as the partner-directors of the new corporation. You then appeared before a licensed representative of the state (judge/captain/pastor/priest/etc.) who formalized the creation of the new corporation. (Pre-nup agreements are another name for "articles of incorporation"). The products produced by this corporation (such as children and other assets) are thus subject to regulation first and foremost by the state, and then secondarily by the directors of the corporation. "Divorce court" is another name for probate court which oversees the division of assets from the deceased corporation.

I have no doubt that you and your husband consider yourselves Scripturally married, and I am not disputing that. I am merely saying that, in the eyes of the state, since you petitioned for and obtained their license, the two of you are operating under their "civil union" and incorporation rules, and that's how they'll treat you if you ever appear before their representatives.

err...what? That still doesn't answer my question. Why not just keep it at "having sex with someone unites them in marriage before God's eyes"?
One can live with someone, and not have sex.
 
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seeingeyes

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I think this whole "technicality" thing is the very issue Jesus addressed when He spoke about our heart attitudes.

Preacher, or no preacher, church, or no church, ceremony, or no ceremony, if you have chosen to live with and sleep with someone, you KNOW you are married to that person. And if you cheat, then you cheat, even if no one can nail you to the wall with a specifically binding definition of adultery.

I don't imagine God likes us playing games like that.

I would agree with that, and I like how Nanopants said that the question revolves around faithfulness (not this or that definition of terms).
 
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seeingeyes

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You either love your wife, or you just selfishly want to let "Little Willie" go out and play. You can try to fabricate all the word games with it you want, but you have no way out of facing the truth.

This gets tricky when dealing with the Patriarchs, no? Was Abraham an adulterer? Was Jacob? Did David repent of a specific case of adultery just to return to his regular form of adultery?
 
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PreachersWife2004

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I think you're missing my point. That's okay, I'm gonna move on anyway.

One can live with someone, and not have sex.

Okay, but that STILL doesn't answer my question. You specifically said that someone who lived with and had sex with someone was then married to that person.

It looks as though Willie needs to actually address the question, too. Why throw living with someone and having sex with them when the whole thread has been about sex? You two seem to now be saying that you have to be living with the person and having sex with them in order to be married in God's eyes.

Why?
 
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seeingeyes

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I've never bought into the idea that two people could just look at each other and decide "well, we're married in the eyes of God now" and be done with it.
Throw in a witness or two, and why not?


err...what? That still doesn't answer my question. Why not just keep it at "having sex with someone unites them in marriage before God's eyes"?
That has never been the definition of marriage. Why should it be now?
 
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PreachersWife2004

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Throw in a witness or two, and why not?

Why the witnesses?

That has never been the definition of marriage. Why should it be now?

because that was what was originally stated by that particular poster. Then, while replying to Willie, it was stated again "living with someone and having sex with them".

(I don't view it as marriage anyway)
 
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