Hi guys,
Someone gave some interesting (negative) comments on the pope which I'd like some of you to address:
Can anyone respond to any of this?
-Jason
Someone gave some interesting (negative) comments on the pope which I'd like some of you to address:
It's hard to exercise any patience toward this view. I don't hope to convince you, but maybe other people will read this response.
You said, "It's clear that Peter was given particular authority from Christ to 'loose and bind'." You make a big deal out of Christ telling Peter that he has the keys, which are inseparably attached (as per Isaiah 22) to the power of loosing and binding.
Your reference is to Matthew 16. But what about Matthew 18:18? Doesn't Christ speak to all the apostles? Doesn't he give them the power to "loose and bind" in this place? It would seem then that even in Matthew 16 he didn't mean to be exclusive of Peter (as if the charge of stately office was excluded from the rest). Christ didn't have one prime minister or one emissary, but many. Jesus even elsewhere tells the twelve that they will sit on twelve thrones ruling over the twelve tribes. Revelation speaks similarly. There is no papacy here.
Even when Paul speaks of Peter, John, and James as pillars in Jerusalem, he doesn't even hint at any kind of pope-like status for Peter. He doesn't subordinate himself to Peter nor does he subordinate John and James to the supposed first pope.
The bottom line is this: The papacy was a historical development within Latin Christianity. Large bishopricks (especially in major cities) naturally began to rise in influence over smaller satellite regions. There came to be schools of thought associated with geographical affiliations (ex: Alexandria, Antioch, Constantinople, Rome).
Rome was successful in dominating the churches far and wide (especially in the West). This influence is hardly any different than Paris dominating and influencing fashion throughout Europe and the Americas (and part of Africa) in previous centuries. Rome became a seat of power. This power developed over time and changed. Christianity's acceptance by the Roman Empire influenced this shift considerably. Though not specifically established by Christ, this Roman domination just worked out that way. Many traditions arose within this Latin Christianity (i.e. Romanism) which tended to bolster or uphold its legitimacy. The office of pope, centered upon the Bishoprick of Rome and supposedly beginning in Peter (or Peter and Paul as per Eusebius), was part of this tradition.
Yet the case to identify Peter as a Bishop of Rome, historically, is a major conflict of interest for Latin (i.e. Romanist)writers/historians. The Scriptural account shows Peter as a pillar in Jerusalem. He writes from "Babylon" in 1 Peter, which again is Jerusalem. If Peter lived beyond a.d. 70, then maybe I could see him going to Rome, but most of the same historians who claim that Peter served in Rome also believe that he was martyred prior to Jerusalem's destruction. The Romanist story does not fit together.
The papacy, to be sure, has many other problems, but I will leave the argument here for now. Yet I will say one last thing: it is beyond dispute that the first several Bishops of Rome had no idea that they were actually popes who had a divinely-appointed authority over other Bishopricks. They didn't exert this authority (because they didn't have that authority). It was only later revisionist history that gave them the universal-church-wide hierarchical office.
Can anyone respond to any of this?
-Jason