Regarding the demon possed man whom Jesus casted the demons out of, there are three passages, each from different gospels, which have an account of the story. Two of the accounts of this story say there was one demon possesed man while the third account says that there were two.
Here are the passages:
Does this discredit the inerrancy of the Bible in anyway? I don't think so. What possible explanations could there exist for these passages?
Here are the passages:
Mark 5:1...?
<SUP>1</SUP>They went across the lake to the region of the Gerasenes.<SUP>[1]</SUP> <SUP>2</SUP>When Jesus got out of the boat, a man with an evil<SUP>[2]</SUP> spirit came from the tombs to meet him. <SUP>3</SUP>This man lived in the tombs, and no one could bind him any more, not even with a chain...
Luke 8:26...
<SUP>26</SUP>They sailed to the region of the Gerasenes,<SUP>[2]</SUP> which is across the lake from Galilee. <SUP>27</SUP>When Jesus stepped ashore, he was met by a demon-possessed man from the town. For a long time this man had not worn clothes or lived in a house, but had lived in the tombs...
Matthew 8:28...
<SUP>28</SUP>When he arrived at the other side in the region of the Gadarenes,<SUP>[4]</SUP> two demon-possessed men coming from the tombs met him. They were so violent that no one could pass that way. <SUP>29</SUP>"What do you want with us, Son of God?" they shouted. "Have you come here to torture us before the appointed time?..."
Does this discredit the inerrancy of the Bible in anyway? I don't think so. What possible explanations could there exist for these passages?