Inerrancy of the Bible - Three Accounts of A Demon-Possed Man

Status
Not open for further replies.

settergren

In Christ Alone
Feb 2, 2003
49
0
43
San Diego
Visit site
✟7,659.00
Faith
Christian
Regarding the demon possed man whom Jesus casted the demons out of, there are three passages, each from different gospels, which have an account of the story. Two of the accounts of this story say there was one demon possesed man while the third account says that there were two.

Here are the passages:

Mark 5:1...?

<SUP>1</SUP>They went across the lake to the region of the Gerasenes.<SUP>[1]</SUP> <SUP>2</SUP>When Jesus got out of the boat, a man with an evil<SUP>[2]</SUP> spirit came from the tombs to meet him. <SUP>3</SUP>This man lived in the tombs, and no one could bind him any more, not even with a chain...

Luke 8:26...

<SUP>26</SUP>They sailed to the region of the Gerasenes,<SUP>[2]</SUP> which is across the lake from Galilee. <SUP>27</SUP>When Jesus stepped ashore, he was met by a demon-possessed man from the town. For a long time this man had not worn clothes or lived in a house, but had lived in the tombs...

Matthew 8:28...

<SUP>28</SUP>When he arrived at the other side in the region of the Gadarenes,<SUP>[4]</SUP> two demon-possessed men coming from the tombs met him. They were so violent that no one could pass that way. <SUP>29</SUP>"What do you want with us, Son of God?" they shouted. "Have you come here to torture us before the appointed time?..."
&nbsp;

&nbsp;

Does this discredit the inerrancy of the Bible in anyway? I don't think so. What possible explanations could there exist for these passages?
 

kern

Miserere Nobis
Apr 14, 2002
2,171
7
44
Florida, USA
Visit site
✟3,249.00
Faith
Catholic
I do not think this discredits inerrancy, nor do I think that it's necessary to come up with convoluted explanations (i.e. imagining that there are two different encounters being described here). It's just an example of the oral form of a story changing through transmission -- it's the same story, but the writer of Matthew received a slightly different version of it than the authors of Mark and Luke.

One other interesting thing about this section is that Codex Sinaiticus has "Gazarenes" emended to "Gergesenes", and a few manuscripts have "Gerasenes", all of which are distinct places different from Gadarenes.

-Chris
 
Upvote 0

kern

Miserere Nobis
Apr 14, 2002
2,171
7
44
Florida, USA
Visit site
✟3,249.00
Faith
Catholic
Because they occur in the same place in the narratives, they occur at the same time, and they are exactly the same story except for that one detail -- that in one account there were two men instead of one. The only reason to believe they are two separate accounts is in an attempt to preserve some strictly literal interpretation of "biblical innerancy".

-Chris
 
Upvote 0

judge

Regular Member
Sep 19, 2002
153
0
Visit site
✟318.00
Faith
Christian
Today at 03:11 AM kern said this in Post #6

Because they occur in the same place in the narratives, they occur at the same time, and they are exactly the same story except for that one detail -- that in one account there were two men instead of one. The only reason to believe they are two separate accounts is in an attempt to preserve some strictly literal interpretation of "biblical innerancy".

-Chris

&nbsp;

They happen in different places as well. I'll have to have a closer look some time.
 
Upvote 0
Status
Not open for further replies.