Has anyone looked at 1 Peter 2:24 in context?

MikeBigg

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Has anyone looked at 1 Peter 2:24 in context?

I know it is in the statement of faith and if you look at healing and the atonement it is nearly always used to support it.

I have yet to see it looked at in the context of the passage it is in.

For example, is it written to all Christians, or a subset?
If to a subset, can the subset be extended to include all Christians?
Does it matter?

Mike
 

Scottmcc1

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It is to be applied to all Christians.

2 Tim 3:16,17
"All Scripture is [a]inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; 17 so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work." NASB

I see the context as suffering. There is much in 1 Peter about suffering. And yes those who are godly will suffer persecution. We are to follow Jesus steps and live godly lives and take the abuse the world will throw at us. And just as the Father caused the work of Satan (by crucifying Jesus) to turn out for the good of all mankind that turn to Jesus, so the trouble we will face will turn to good. Romans 8:28

Our salvation gives us the ability to live in the spirit. And our healing gives us the ability to live strong for Jesus in the flesh.
 
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MikeBigg

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It is to be applied to all Christians.

2 Tim 3:16,17
"All Scripture is [a]inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; 17 so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work." NASB

I see the context as suffering. There is much in 1 Peter about suffering. And yes those who are godly will suffer persecution. We are to follow Jesus steps and live godly lives and take the abuse the world will throw at us. And just as the Father caused the work of Satan (by crucifying Jesus) to turn out for the good of all mankind that turn to Jesus, so the trouble we will face will turn to good. Romans 8:28

Our salvation gives us the ability to live in the spirit. And our healing gives us the ability to live strong for Jesus in the flesh.


Thanks Scott.

By quoting 2 Tim 3 are you suggesting that if it is written to a subset it applies to all anyway?

Mike
 
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PastorMike

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Thanks Scott.

By quoting 2 Tim 3 are you suggesting that if it is written to a subset it applies to all anyway?

Mike

Mike one of the problems you run into is when you try to decide what is written for this group or that group, because you run the danger then of... "well none of it was spoken to me..."

So where do you draw the line, Jesus only preached the born again message to one person, alone, at night... does that mean that Nicodemus was the only one that needed to be born again?

Well it was only spoken to him... So where do you draw the line... Unless it is specifically written to particular group of people... perhaps then it would not apply to anyone outside that group...

except maybe in the case of... Romans 2:11 For there is no respect of persons with God.

Or if he will heal one person he will heal all because he is not a respecter of persons...

Actually he is only a respecter of faith in his word...
 
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MikeBigg

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Thanks, PastorMike.

If its ok with you - I'll choose not to apply the bits that were written to wives to myself :D

When I look at 1 Peter 2 and 3 the message seems to be aimed at different groups of people:

2: 11 Starts "Dear friends ..."
2: 18 "Slaves ..."
3: 1 "Wives ..."
3: 7 "Husbands ..."

then to finish it off:

3: 8 "Finally, all of you ..."

Verse 2: 24, the verse this thread is about, is in the section addressed to slaves. It doesn't apply to wives or husbands as they have their own section, and it doesn't apply to all of us as all of us have our own section at 3: 8.

In the light of this, can we claim this verse as universal? If so, on what basis?


Mike
 
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Scottmcc1

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MikeBigg,

PastorMike presented a reason why we should take the Bible and apply it to all people. Now you have ignored that post. You thanked him for what he said and then ignored what he said. What about Nicodemus?

I quote 2 Tim 3:16,17 and you say, "By quoting 2 Tim 3 are you suggesting that if it is written to a subset." When I said clearly before it is for all Christians. Yet you are completely ignoring what I say after thanking me for posting.

You do not answer my implied question. Why is not Scripture for all Christians?

And you come into our Word of Faith area and attack our belief that healing is for all. Now there is a place for debate on this topic. Spirit Filled Charismatic Debate Why not invite us to listen to you tear down our belief over there?

But I see you don't want to debate, you just state your belief ignoring what others are saying.
 
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Thanks, PastorMike.

If its ok with you - I'll choose not to apply the bits that were written to wives to myself :D

When I look at 1 Peter 2 and 3 the message seems to be aimed at different groups of people:

2: 11 Starts "Dear friends ..."
2: 18 "Slaves ..."
3: 1 "Wives ..."
3: 7 "Husbands ..."

then to finish it off:

3: 8 "Finally, all of you ..."

Verse 2: 24, the verse this thread is about, is in the section addressed to slaves. It doesn't apply to wives or husbands as they have their own section, and it doesn't apply to all of us as all of us have our own section at 3: 8.

In the light of this, can we claim this verse as universal? If so, on what basis?


Mike

maybe this will help - 1 Peter is written to everyone - but addresses specific issues -

2: 11 Starts "Dear friends ..." - TO ALL OF YOU
2: 18 ABOUT "Slaves ..." - TO ALL OF YOU
2:24 - ABOUT JESUS - TO ALL OF YOU
3: 1 ABOUT "Wives ..." - TO ALL OF YOU
3: 7 ABOUT "Husbands ..." - TO ALL OF YOU
3: 8 "Finally, all of you ..." - TO ALL OF YOU

GOD BLESS you -
 
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MikeBigg

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MikeBigg,
PastorMike presented a reason why we should take the Bible and apply it to all people. Now you have ignored that post. You thanked him for what he said and then ignored what he said. What about Nicodemus?

I didn't ignore what PastorMike said, I went on from that - the sort of thing you do in conversation.

Have you read the text in John 3? The language is inclusive. By that I mean that although it was spoken to Nicodemus the language includes everyone. For example, the "you" in "you must be born again" is plural meaning it wasn't just intended for Nicodemus but for everyone there and probably us.

I quote 2 Tim 3:16,17 and you say, "By quoting 2 Tim 3 are you suggesting that if it is written to a subset." When I said clearly before it is for all Christians. Yet you are completely ignoring what I say after thanking me for posting.

You do not answer my implied question. Why is not Scripture for all Christians?

OK - so the bit of scripture that is written specifically to wives, should that refer to me when I am not and cannot be a wife? That would be foolish. So, some scripture do indeed apply to only a subset of people which is why I asked what you are meaning?

And you come into our Word of Faith area and attack our belief that healing is for all. Now there is a place for debate on this topic. Spirit Filled Charismatic Debate Why not invite us to listen to you tear down our belief over there?

I'm not attacking your beliefs, I'm simply asking questions about it. If your beliefs are so shaky that a simple country boy can come in and bring it down with a simple question, then your beliefs do need looking at. Seriously.

But I see you don't want to debate, you just state your belief ignoring what others are saying.

I do want a debate. I do want to find an answer to this question. The reason that it is valid here is because you guys should know the answer to these questions - the rest of the Charismatics won't because it is not such a crucial verse for them.

Would you like to answer the questions instead of getting angry with me?

Do you still think that all scripture is intended for all people?

Do you think that 1 peter 2: 24 was written specifically to slaves?

What makes it applicable to me and you (ie non-slaves)?

The reason I am asking this is that I have been studying healing in the atonement. When doing google searches I have been struck at how many sites there are that rank highly in google results that say that healing is not in the atonement. So I have started a website in which I will have articles on healing in the atonement and will attempt to get it high in the google results.

In order to do this I need to study the proof passages. That's what I'm doing here.

Incidently, I am partially WoF. I am WoF when it comes to healing - which is what this topic is about, so I am not here to bring down WoF teaching on healing and won't be commenting on any other subject.

Hopefully we can get on with the discussion now.

Kind regards,

Mike
 
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MikeBigg

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maybe this will help - 1 Peter is written to everyone - but addresses specific issues -

2: 11 Starts "Dear friends ..." - TO ALL OF YOU
2: 18 ABOUT "Slaves ..." - TO ALL OF YOU
2:24 - ABOUT JESUS - TO ALL OF YOU
3: 1 ABOUT "Wives ..." - TO ALL OF YOU
3: 7 ABOUT "Husbands ..." - TO ALL OF YOU
3: 8 "Finally, all of you ..." - TO ALL OF YOU

GOD BLESS you -

What have you added the word "about"? Is that in the original?

Surely, if it were about slaves, the verse would read something like:

"Slaves, in reverent fear of God should submit themselves to their masters"

not

"Slaves, in reverent fear of God submit yourselves to your masters"

It is clear to me because of the word "your" it is directed towards slaves, not about them.

I have checked - "about" is not present in the greek, nor implied because of the above.

Regards,

Mike
 
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Optimax

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Thanks Optimax.

Was that answer based on your personal study, or what youve previously heard or read?

Mike


Both.

They are referencing mostly these two scriptures.


The word "griefs" is OT:2483 and means sickness, disease.

OT:2483 yl!j( choliy (khol-ee'); from OT:2470; malady, anxiety, calamity:

KJV - disease, grief, (is) sick (-ness).
(Biblesoft's New Exhaustive Strong's Numbers and Concordance with Expanded Greek-Hebrew Dictionary. Copyright © 1994, 2003 Biblesoft, Inc. and International Bible Translators, Inc.)


Isa 53:4-5

4 Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.

5 But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed. KJV
 
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PastorMike

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The problem is there is no definitive chapter on healing or on faith or on most topics, you can't build a doctrine on a single verse, it is too dangerous... So you must take an overall, broad view of all the scriptures that deal with healing or faith etc...

I have several teachings (video & audios) that deal with healing in the atonement that show conclusively that healing is part of the finished work of Christ...
 
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MikeBigg

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The problem is there is no definitive chapter on healing or on faith or on most topics, you can't build a doctrine on a single verse, it is too dangerous... So you must take an overall, broad view of all the scriptures that deal with healing or faith etc...

I have several teachings (video & audios) that deal with healing in the atonement that show conclusively that healing is part of the finished work of Christ...

Thanks, Mike.

FWIW, I am already convinced that healing is in the atonement, that is not the issue here.

It seems to me that when discussing healing in the atonement, everyone quotes Is 53, Matt 8 and 1 Pe 2: 24. Though it looks like 1 Pe 2 does not stand up to proper scrutiny.

I have McCrossan's book. 1 Pe 2 is mentioned, but not in context.

My pastor says "a verse without a context is a pretext". In context, to my reading, 1 Pe 2: 24 does not apply to all people, only to slaves.

If I'm wrong, how is it right?

Regards,

Mike
 
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MikeBigg

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Both.

They are referencing mostly these two scriptures.


The word "griefs" is OT:2483 and means sickness, disease.

OT:2483 yl!j( choliy (khol-ee'); from OT:2470; malady, anxiety, calamity:

KJV - disease, grief, (is) sick (-ness).
(Biblesoft's New Exhaustive Strong's Numbers and Concordance with Expanded Greek-Hebrew Dictionary. Copyright © 1994, 2003 Biblesoft, Inc. and International Bible Translators, Inc.)


Isa 53:4-5

4 Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.

5 But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed. KJV

Thanks, Optimax, I'll compare what you've written with my own studies on Isa 53.

What you've written doesn't related directly to study of 1 Pe 2: 24, though.

Regards,

Mike
 
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Thanks, Optimax, I'll compare what you've written with my own studies on Isa 53.

What you've written doesn't related directly to study of 1 Pe 2: 24, though.

Regards,

Mike



1 Peter 2:24
Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.
KJV


Isa 53:5
But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed. KJV
:)
 
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MikeBigg

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Thank you, Optimax - and what of the context of 1 Pe 2: 24?

Have you read any of the other posts in this thread? What about post #7 which seeks to put the verse in context?

It is really the study of 1 Pe 2 that I'm trying to look at here.

Mike
 
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Optimax

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I didn't ignore what PastorMike said, I went on from that - the sort of thing you do in conversation.

Have you read the text in John 3? The language is inclusive. By that I mean that although it was spoken to Nicodemus the language includes everyone. For example, the "you" in "you must be born again" is plural meaning it wasn't just intended for Nicodemus but for everyone there and probably us.



OK - so the bit of scripture that is written specifically to wives, should that refer to me when I am not and cannot be a wife? That would be foolish. So, some scripture do indeed apply to only a subset of people which is why I asked what you are meaning?



I'm not attacking your beliefs, I'm simply asking questions about it. If your beliefs are so shaky that a simple country boy can come in and bring it down with a simple question, then your beliefs do need looking at. Seriously.



I do want a debate. I do want to find an answer to this question. The reason that it is valid here is because you guys should know the answer to these questions - the rest of the Charismatics won't because it is not such a crucial verse for them.

Would you like to answer the questions instead of getting angry with me?

Do you still think that all scripture is intended for all people?

Do you think that 1 peter 2: 24 was written specifically to slaves?

What makes it applicable to me and you (ie non-slaves)?

The reason I am asking this is that I have been studying healing in the atonement. When doing google searches I have been struck at how many sites there are that rank highly in google results that say that healing is not in the atonement. So I have started a website in which I will have articles on healing in the atonement and will attempt to get it high in the google results.

In order to do this I need to study the proof passages. That's what I'm doing here.

Incidently, I am partially WoF. I am WoF when it comes to healing - which is what this topic is about, so I am not here to bring down WoF teaching on healing and won't be commenting on any other subject.

Hopefully we can get on with the discussion now.

Kind regards,

Mike


Consider verse 21 in which the subject shifted to Christ and His suffering.

Verses 22 continues with the subject Jesus.

Verse 23 continues with the subject as Jesus.

1 Peter 2:21-23

21 For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow his steps:

22 Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:

23 Who, when he was reviled, reviled not again; when he suffered, he threatened not; but committed himself to him that judgeth righteously:
KJV

Verse 24 is a continuation with the subject as Jesus and what he suffered for us and what He provided for us.

1 Peter 2:24
Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed. KJV

Just as Jesus bore our sin, by His stripes we are healed!
:)
 
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Both.

They are referencing mostly these two scriptures.


The word "griefs" is OT:2483 and means sickness, disease.

OT:2483 yl!j( choliy (khol-ee'); from OT:2470; malady, anxiety, calamity:

KJV - disease, grief, (is) sick (-ness).
(Biblesoft's New Exhaustive Strong's Numbers and Concordance with Expanded Greek-Hebrew Dictionary. Copyright © 1994, 2003 Biblesoft, Inc. and International Bible Translators, Inc.)


Isa 53:4-5

4 Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.

5 But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed. KJV
Absolutely EXCELLENT answer!! Right on target.
 
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