KJV better then the rest? List your thoughts.

King James Onlyism - Only the KJV of the bible is inerrant scripture.

Scholarship Onlyism - I'm not sure of your definition ed, but I don't think it makes any claims on what is inerrant scripture.

hence trying to compare the two will lead progressively to confusion.

I do agree that without the Spirit to guide us, people can pervert what Scripture says. Happens all the time...

Prayers, and Blessings to you.

Ed, there's no need to shout at the top of your lungs. Sit down, relax, have a beer. Have two. Have three, if you think it'll help.

I do agree that without the Spirit to guide us, people can pervert what Scripture says. Happens all the time...

Click to expand...

[gentle sarcasm mode ON] But Nav, we can't be sure that the Holy Spirit is even around to guide us....after all, He left us to our own devices in 312 when Constantine came on the scene, and didn't bother to show up again until 1517 when He sent Luther to us! Maybe He decided to go on hiatus again, who knows? [gentle sarcasm mode OFF]

God bless all here,
---Wols.

Or are you one of those scholars who wants to 'see' in order to believe? Funny, though - even if they say they 'see' first - none of them can agree on what they 'see'! There are over 400 modern perversions of the Bible and the list continues to grow. When will they finally 'believe'?

Click to expand...

Believe what? What do you consider absolute?

How about believing that

- we are sinners (Ephesians 2:1-3)
- our sins deserve God's punishment (Romans 6:23)
- Jesus Christ is true God (John 20:28) and true Man (1 Tim. 2:5)
- God sent Jesus Christ to live perfectly according to the law (Matthew 5:17; Heb. 4:15)
- Jesus Christ died as the perfect sacrifice for all humans (1 John 2:2)
- God counts as righteous those who believe in Jesus Christ as Savior (Romans 3-4)
- Christ's righteousness is given to us (Phil. 3:9; 2 Cor. 5:21)
- people are saved by grace through faith in Jesus Christ (Eph. 2:8-9)
- everyone who believes in Jesus Christ will receive the inheritance of the Holy Spirit (Ephesians 1:13-14)
- everyone who believes in Jesus Christ will receive everlasting life (John 3:16; 1 John 5:11-13)
- the wicked and disobedient will spend eternity in hell/everlasting torment (Matt. 25:31-46)
- everyone who believes in Jesus Christ will be raised from the dead to receive the fulness of God's promises at the the end of time (1 Cor. 15)
- ....

Guess, what, ed? Didn't have to refer once to the KJV. Didn't even have to check to see whether the Greek was "correct."

Salvation comes through hearing the word. That refers to the spoken word (Romans 10; and especially 1 Thessalonians 2:13). So where was the KJV when the Gospel was being proclaimed through 1,500 years? Was God's perfect Word available through the ages? yep. is it available today? Yep. It has many different forms, but that is God's Word. Powerful even able to divide the spirit and soul.

Glad I'm not in the prison of KJV Onlyism. Being free in Christ is much better - and the Word of God assures me (and all believers of that).

Amen! Like St Paul, I have dtermined to know nothing about anything except Christ--and about His crucifixion!

Scholars and bickerers may get into pointless arguments, but I just want to share the Good News!

They didn't call it the 'Dark Ages' for nothin.

Can't have it both ways, Ed. Dark Ages (6th - 13th century) are the exact time you claim that the KJV line was preserved perfectly. Which is it?

And are you calling the Apostles and post-Apostolic Fathers (who knew the Apostles) part of the Dark Ages?

Um, if I may be permitted to make an annoying observation (it's just the old History Major in me----and a Phi Alpha Theta at that...we're the worst kind), the Dark Ages ran from approximately 476 AD with the deposing of Romulus Augustulus to approximately 1,000 AD with the first developments of the nascent feudal system.

The King James Version was published in 1611, which isn't even in the Medieval timeframe---it's almost, in fact, post-Renaissance.

Ergo, a difference of 611 to 1,135 years.

The era of the Church Fathers ran from Clement of Rome (fl. circa 80 AD) to the death of John Damascene (d. circa 749). Nowhere near 1611.

Sorry, just had be a pest and throw that in there.....

Originally posted by Navigator


Just as an aside, God never called his creation 'perfect' he called it 'good' and 'very good'.

Click to expand...

If I can use "your words" to make a point.

Mr 10:18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.

To what do you suppose Jesus/God was referring when they said; "GOOD"???

"all have sinned". (none Prefect)

Do you see a connection between the word "GOOD" as God used it "in the beginning", and as Jesus used the "SAME WORD" in his day???

The problem with "modern translations", is that "MEN" pick and chose words that they believe mean the same thing, but are spelled different, and in doing so, they break the connection of that word to other parts of the Bible.

When you consider that God chose each word, and that "word" has connections throughout the whole Bible, you understand why men are not free to "pick and chose" their own words.

If God had said the "earth was nice", and Jesus said none was good but God, you would never have seen the connection the word "GOOD" makes between Jesus and God.

God's word in not "God's word", (written or Physical (Jesus) until you can see "God in his word".

then using the same word, do you call the KJV 'good'?

and if you do, and you are using the same criteria that Jesus used (none good but God), have you then made the KJV into God?

Quite a leap... as is the leap that God chose elizabethean words exclusively to convey his message.

God communicates with us through his Word, and His strength will be made perfect in our weakness. (1 Cor 12:9) (or the translations weakness... )

ymmv.

Originally posted by Navigator
then using the same word, do you call the KJV 'good'?

and if you do, and you are using the same criteria that Jesus used (none good but God), have you then made the KJV into God?

Quite a leap... as is the leap that God chose elizabethean words exclusively to convey his message.

God communicates with us through his Word, and His strength will be made perfect in our weakness. (1 Cor 12:9) (or the translations weakness... )

ymmv.

Click to expand...

Let's turn the question around.

Why believe that God and all his creation is/was perfect, yet refuse to believe that God can create a "perfect book"???

"As your faith, so be it unto you"

"FAITH" is like "Eye glasses", the stronger the "Faith" the "CLEARER" you can "SEE".

And when you believe you are reading "The best man can come up with", you don't have much "faith" in "those words".

Your belief that man, down throught the ages/translations, has "preverted" the perfection of God's word denies "God's word".

God said "HIS WORDS" would never pass away, they're under his "Divine protection", if it had been left up to man, the first generation would have destroyed "God's word" and no generations since would have ever known "The perfect word of God".


The question still remains, what do you believe about God??

Is he Perfect, is his creation perfect, is his word perfect??

Are those words you're reading "God's or man's", can you trust them to be correct, even down to the "S" on words that make them singular or plural??