If Paul's point is that male leaders need to be monogamous, isn't it taking him out of context to make it say leaders have to be male? It isn't what he was talking about. We can see this even more clearly in verse 12 where Paul say deacons must be the husband of one wife, yet Romans 16:1 tells us that Phoebe was a deacon in Cenchreae. Being a deacon wasn't restricted to men, and husband of one wife wasn't talking about deacons having to be men.
You can also see Paul talking about women deacons in 1Tim 3:11, right in the middle of his discussion about deacons Paul gives the qualification for women
1Tim 3:8 NASB Deacons likewise must be men of dignity, not double-tongued, or addicted to much wine or fond of sordid gain, 9 but holding to the mystery of the faith with a clear conscience. 10 These men must also first be tested; then let them serve as deacons if they are beyond reproach. 11 Women must likewise be dignified, not malicious gossips, but temperate, faithful in all things. 12 Deacons must be husbands of only one wife, and good managers of their children and their own households. 13 For those who have served well as deacons obtain for themselves a high standing and great confidence in the faith that is in Christ Jesus.
Unfortunately, most most of our bible translations go for 'wives' rather than 'women', though this seems to be based on the idea he couldn't possibly have mean women in positions of leadership. But the Greek is better translated women. Woman and wife are the same word in Greek, so if you wanted to specify a wife or wives rather than woman or women, you needed to show the relationship, 'their women' or a woman's 'own man'. Paul doesn't he just says women. Interestingly, Paul starts talking about the women with a 'likewise' the same way he followed on from bishops with 'likewise deacons'.
But It think Priscilla is the clearest example showing us that husband of one wife was talking about the need for monogamy, not that bishops and deacons need to be men.