Originally posted by <><
Hebrews 1, NKJV
4 having become so much better than the angels, as He has by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.
5 For to which of the angels did He ever say:
"You are My Son,
Today I have begotten You"?
And again:
"I will be to Him a Father,
And He shall be to Me a Son"?
6 But when He again brings the firstborn into the world, He says:
"Let all the angels of God worship Him."
I would like to receive comments upon the bold words in the passage above. What do those words mean? How shall I understand them?
by inheritance - How can Jesus inherit anything?
begotten You - When was the Son begotten? Was He begotten more than once?
again - Is there any significance to this word?
How can Jesus inherit anything?
When was the Son begotten? Was He begotten more than once?
Jesus is the Son of God and by virtue of this relationship, he inherit's his possition. We should not confuse the issue with our limited, mortal understanding of time. The Bible makes it very clear that Christ was there with God in the beginning. Ex: Jn 1:1.
He was begotten when He was manifested in the flesh in Mary's womb. Just because he was not litteraly born the Son of God until this time, does not mean that he was not the Son of God before. Remember, the trinity of God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit, are eternal. They exist outside of time.
NO angel has ever been "begotten" in this manner...they were all created by God. Christ, on the other hand, always was. Christ was not created and was begotten only once.
The significance in the word "again" in v6.
And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world,
he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.
There are coma's in this verse. Read the bold above only. "Again" is stressing what God said the angels were to do. The part not in bold, is giving a time when the bold portion occurred. Read on to vv7 & 8 to understand further.
In v7, we are told that the angels were made to be ministers.
In v8, we are told that "unto the Son (note the big "S") he saith, Thy throne O God, is forever and ever:" Things to notice about this verse: "the" Son. God did not say "a" son. "Thy throne O God" God said that THE SON has a throne and that he is God and His throne is forever". Not also the last two words of v8..."thy kingdom". No angel rules in this way, but Christ does!
Remember too, that Paul is relating to the Hebrews what God said about Jesus. The Hebrews thought that Jesus was just a prophet at best, Paul is telling them that he is more than this. Remember that the Hebrews, although they did not "worship" angels (they are prohibited from worshiping anyone or anything other than God) they held them in highest esteem because they were FROM God. Paul is relating to the Hebrews that God holds Jesus in greater esteem than the angels becaue He is God's son and the angels are God's
created servants.
Having established this, he (Paul) begins Ch2 with "Therefore"
Since someone brought it up, lets look as some verses in Heb 2...v7, 8a "Thou madest him a little lower than the angels..." God wrapped him in flesh. The Hebrews saw the angels superior to man because they were spirit and so close to God. "thou crownedst him with glory and honour, and didst set him over the work of thy hands: Thou has put all things in subjection under his feet." Yet being inferior flesh, all things which are created are under him.
Heb 2:9
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death,
crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should tast death for every man.
Read this verse carefully. Between the two statements in bold, we see WHY "Jesus, crowned with glory and honour" was "made a little lower tan the angels"...to suffer death. Also the end of the verse gives us the why, He (Christ) was made flesh. This was done so that he could die. Angels are imortal and cannot die. God can destroy them, and he will some, at the final judgment. But fleshly man, he dies. If Christ did not become flesh, he could not have bled and died on the cross for to pay our sin-debt. All the OT sacrifices made by the Hebrews pointed to this payment in blood.
Look at Heb 9:8-12 The Holy Ghost this signifying, that the way into the holiest of all was not yet made manifest, while as the first tabernacle was yet standing: Which was a figure for the time then present, in which were offered both gifts and sacrifices, that could not make him that did the service perfect, as pertaining to the conscience; Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation. But Christ being come an hight priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this building; Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but
by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having
obtained eternal redemption for us.
The Hebrew sacrifices had to be repeated (Heb 10 makes this clear), Christ's eternally attoning sacrifice was once for all (eternal).
Heb 9:22-24 (Christ had to bleed and die) And almost all things are by the law purged with blood;
and without shedding of blood is no remission. It was
therefore necessary that the patterns of things in the heavens shoud be purified with these; but the heavenly things themselves with
better sacrifices than these. For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the
figures of the
true; but
into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us:
The Hebrew high priest had to make a sacrifice of an animal to enter into the holiest of holies within the tabernacle. Christ is both the sacrifice and the high priest. Note too, that the shedding of blood is required in these sacrifices for the remission of sins. Could Christ have shed
HIS OWN blood as stated in v12 if he were not flesh? The holiest of holies in His case, is heaven where he makes constant intersession for us with God the Father. (Hebrews 10 amplifies this further...)