Almost but not quite. Firstly you were asked to give the reason rather than your opinion. 1 Cor 6 says it harms ones own body which is a temple of the Holy Spirit, unlike other sins which harm others.
No, I was asked for MY definition (i.e. my opinion):
Silachoo: "Don't avoid my question, I gave you the definition of what sexual immorality is and
want to hear yours."
Which passages? There was temple prostitution in the Roman, Greek and cultures of the time and pederasty, but the NT doesnt mention them, the NT, particularly the epistle to the Corinthians mentions that because of so much sexual immorality each man should have his own wife. It also specifically calls out adultery, idolatry, prostitution and men who have sex with men as error. You are attributing these acts to only specific instances of them.
You are mistaken. I gave my definition of sexual immorality and then gave common examples of sexual immorality during NT times. I have not made an error. If so...then you need to tell me EXACTLY where.
On the basis of your generalisation you wouldnt consider paedophlia a sin as it is not listed as a sin.
You are sorely mistaken. See my definition of sexual immorality. It really isn't very complicated.
Ah no, the instruction is consistent with the rest of the Bible which has only faithful man/woman countenanced as Gods creation purpose. Gen 2, Matt 19, Mark 10, Eph 5. Only celibacy and marriage are countenanced so sexual immorality is anything outside that, which is indeed why because of the sexual immorality each man should have his own wife.
You are completely discounting what was going on in Corinth and that Paul was writing specifically to address that. Also...since you seem to think you know a thing-or-two about this issue...
why don't you tell us why premarital sex or "sexual relations prior to entering marriage" is not explicitly prohibited in the OT???? Would you have us believe that more people had sex with their mothers (Lev 18) than engaged in premarital sex? God does not want his people to be ignorant of their sin.
Well we know, but one has to know what Gods purposes are or one cannot know what cultural practices were wrong.
Yes, Gods creation purpose was for man and woman in faithful union; Leviticus describes sexual deviations as what the pagans do which the people of God must not do.
there are a lot of false teachers about, mostly one sees, if one googles it gay activism. Gay activism of course tries to deny what the Bible says.
You are correct that it is important to understand scripture in its historical context, but also to recognise the word of God speaks to all cultures with the same truth, His people are to be set apart.
Here is a Biblical truth: sinful behavior harms either oneself or others. If you believe premarital sex is a sin...then it is the most unique sin in the Bible because it is the only behavioral sin in which nobody is harmed.
Well it doesnt specifically affirm it, and it doesnt indirectly rule it out. If each man should get his own wife then premaritial sex is included in the sexual immorality.
This is where you're understanding is flawed. This does not imply that premarital sex is included in sexual immorality and therefore a sin. The best....and wisest option would be for a man to get his own wife. That does not mean that premarital sex is a sin...it just means that premarital sex is not a viable option for putting out the flames of passion...it would be only a temporary solution.
It is sad that your argument is based on denying what is indirectly indicated by passages such as 1 Cor 7, without any scriptural affirmation for your case.
How ironic. You can not provide one piece of scripture explicitly prohibiting premarital sex...yet I'm the one without scriptural affirmation. If premarital sex is such a sin...why is it "indirectly indicated"? Why is it never specifically mentioned?
Here is what this boils down to: What was meant by the koline Greek word 'inappropriate contenteia'? I do think the best translation to English is "sexual immorality". Paul was writing to Greeks...using Greek words. If the Greeks read his letter and came across inappropriate contenteia...what would they have thought this meant? This is the approach we must take...because Paul didn't tell them "don't have sexual relations prior to entering into marriage". So...how would his letter have been received? To Paul and the other Apostles, inappropriate contenteia certainly included all adultery (Exodus 20:14), incest (Leviticus 18:6-18), inappropriate behavior with animals (Leviticus 18:23), harlotry, including temple prostitution (Ezekiel 16:41), plus perhaps other offenses unspecified (such as pederasty given the prevalence of the practice by the Greeks and the harm inflicted). But...since he doesn't list premarital sex...and it is not prohibited in the OT...we shouldn't include it.
CC
