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Nostromo

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I agree with you on the aspect of the grammar; the different phrases have distinct meanings. But I don't think that makes them, taken together, necessarily contradictory. Unclear, ungrammatical, ambiguous, even inconsistent. But AV's is still a not unreasonable explanation of the apparent contradiction.
I don't see how you could agree with the grammar and not with the contradiction. You didn't find the gates opened if at 0600 you turn up and the guard opened the gates. Anyway, we can agree to disagree.


Next question:
God is the Author of His Word, but He used 4 divinely-inspired men (Matthew, Mark, Luke and John) to write the Gospels in their own words.

The key here is: in their own words.

That these accounts differ, shows that they were indeed, in their own words.
As someone who believes the KJV is a more accurate than the original texts, why would you say the above? The gospels in the authoritative text obviously aren't Mark & co's own words, they are necessarily translations.
 
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Tomatoman

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Considering that the alternative is that it is wrong isn't an option available to me; especially since they can so easily be reconciled.

Then I advise you not to look too closely into the early history of the gospels and christianity. Many other devout believers have done so before you and had their faith shredded.
 
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MoonLancer

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Then I advise you not to look too closely into the early history of the gospels and christianity. Many other devout believers have done so before you and had their faith shredded.
Truth is a sword of pain... but at least its honest :)
 
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AV1611VET

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Next question:
As someone who believes the KJV is a more accurate than the original texts, why would you say the above? The gospels in the authoritative text obviously aren't Mark & co's own words, they are necessarily translations.
They are accurate translations of what they said, thus the words are their very own.

If a translator translated my words into Greek, they are my words, not the words of the translator.

And by the way, then the Author and the Translator are the same...
 
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AV1611VET

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Then I advise you not to look too closely into the early history of the gospels and christianity. Many other devout believers have done so before you and had their faith shredded.
Thanks -- I'll take that under consideration.
 
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1611AV

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To: AV1611VET From: 1611AV ;)
I agree, The KJ/AV is a more accurate than the original texts.

When the original manuscript was destroyed it was rewritten with additional words. The second original was superior to the first because it provided more (additional) truth. The second original was also destroyed by order of God (Jer. 51:63-64) Therefore triple inspiration of the verbally inspired originals occured for the preservation of the words today.

Alexandrian scholars claim to believe in the original autographs, but they have never seen them (John 9:28-29)

Interesting when we read the book of Jeremiah, we see how superior the Word of God as preserved today in the KJ/AV is not only original, but better than the original, original.

Not only that but the Ten Commandments are a Original of the Original as Moses destroyed the first original, written by the finger of God, and rewrote the 2nd original in his own hand. Nobody but Moses saw the First. Yet Scholars have no problem believing the 2nd in this case.

So much for not having the "Original" Original.

Lord Bless,
 
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Nostromo

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They are accurate translations of what they said, thus the words are their very own.

If a translator translated my words into Greek, they are my words, not the words of the translator.
They are the translator's interpretation of your words.

Your words are your words.
And by the way, then the Author and the Translator are the same...
Sorry?
 
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AV1611VET

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Chris81

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I run the sound booth, count and [sometimes] deposit the money, and sign checks.

I also run the audio at the church I attend.

Are you pulling my leg with this 'you sign the checks bit'?:scratch:

I don't understand the question.

Sorry, I meant to say do you serve in any ministries?

But, I think you already answered my question.

Thanks!

I have another question for you. What is your favorite Christian author?
 
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AV1611VET

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Nostromo

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Nathan touched on this but I'd like to rephrase the question.

Correct me if I'm horribly mistaken, but it seems clear that Matthew et al were not witnesses to some of the events, e.g. the tomb scene we talked about earlier.

Presumably the same applies to this as to the scene LTTF brought up:
Secondly, who was there to see the vail rent to two?
God
If it is indeed God that witnessed the scene and passed on the information to the gospel writers, how does this situation come about? :
If one account, for example, says one man did something, and another account says two men did something; assume no contradiction by assuming two men did something, with one writer reporting (or placing emphasis on) only the one man that he saw, and the other writer reporting (or placing emphasis on) seeing both men.
The writers didn't see any of it, they were inspired of it by someone that saw everything.

Same goes for speech being quoted by the gospel writers. Most people quoting something they considered important (and I assume divine inspiration is considered important) would quote verbatim, why is that not the case here?
 
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ReverendDG

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i'd like to point this out, the only reason there are four gospels is that irenaeus argued there should be in his text against heresies. why? because jesus as the son of god should be represented by four stories, as the four winds, as the four elements, four being an important number according to him.
his book attacked those with only one gospel, like marcionism or the ebonites.

he claimed that the four gospels stood as the four pillars of the church.
he won.
 
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AV1611VET

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If it is indeed God that witnessed the scene and passed on the information to the gospel writers, how does this situation come about?
I'm not sure, but the Bible doesn't leave us without at least an educated guess:

Numbers 24:4 He hath said, which heard the words of God, which saw the vision of the Almighty, falling into a trance, but having his eyes open:

Ezekiel 8:3 And he put forth the form of an hand, and took me by a lock of mine head; and the spirit lifted me up between the earth and the heaven, and brought me in the visions of God to Jerusalem, to the door of the inner gate that looketh toward the north; where was the seat of the image of jealousy, which provoketh to jealousy.

Habakkuk 2:2 And the LORD answered me, and said, Write the vision, and make it plain upon tables, that he may run that readeth it.

2 Corinthians 12:1 ¶ It is not expedient for me doubtless to glory. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord.
2 I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, ( whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth; ) such an one caught up to the third heaven.
3 And I knew such a man, ( whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth; )
4 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.
 
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Nostromo

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I'm not sure, but the Bible doesn't leave us without at least an educated guess:
Perhaps you could explain why you picked those passages, because I honestly don't see the relevance.

Your original argument was that the accounts differed according to what the author/writers saw, but that makes no sense when you consider that the author saw everything and the writers saw nothing. The dialogue is probably the biggest sticking point for me... are we simply to accept that God intentionally gave the writers inaccurate quotes, or perhaps that the memories of John and Luke were so bad that when the two men/angels speak to Mary at the tomb, the two different versions recalled are:

"Woman, why weepest thou?"
vs
"Why seek ye the living among the dead? He is not here, but is risen: remember how he spake unto you when he was yet in Galilee, Saying, The Son of man must be delivered into the hands of sinful men, and be crucified, and the third day rise again. "
 
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